South Carolina General Assembly
114th Session, 2001-2002

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Bill 4416


Indicates Matter Stricken
Indicates New Matter


(Text matches printed bills. Document has been reformatted to meet World Wide Web specifications.)


Indicates Matter Stricken

Indicates New Matter

AS PASSED BY THE SENATE

May 22, 2002

    H. 4416

Introduced by Reps. Wilkins, Harrison, W.D. Smith, J. Brown, Leach, Bingham, Keegan, Whatley, Carnell, Vaughn, Lucas, Lourie, Limehouse, J.R. Smith, Wilder, Webb, Kirsh, Allison, A. Young, Sandifer, Walker, Talley, Littlejohn, Coates, Altman, Witherspoon, Campsen, Taylor, Law, Snow, Rice, Simrill, Freeman, Neilson, Clyburn, Gilham, Robinson, Hinson, Meacham-Richardson, Tripp, Cotty, Rodgers, Loftis, Frye, Koon, Delleney, Haskins, Hamilton, Cato, Easterday, Barfield, Scarborough, Chellis, Thompson, Edge, Merrill, Fleming, Stuart, Cooper, Dantzler, D.C. Smith, Sinclair, J. Young, White, Martin, Trotter, Harrell, Quinn, Huggins, Miller, Battle, Harvin, Barrett, Emory, Knotts, Riser and Bales

S. Printed 5/22/02--S.

Read the first time February 28, 2002.

            

A BILL

TO ENACT THE SOUTH CAROLINA "OMNIBUS TERRORISM PROTECTION AND HOMELAND DEFENSE ACT OF 2002" INCLUDING PROVISIONS TO AMEND THE CODE OF LAWS OF SOUTH CAROLINA, 1976, BY ADDING SECTION 16-3-1100 SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT IT IS UNLAWFUL TO PROVIDE MATERIALS OR RESOURCES IN SUPPORT OF TERRORIST, TERRORIST ORGANIZATIONS, OR INTERNATIONAL TERRORISM, AND TO PROVIDE A PENALTY; TO AMEND SECTION 16-3-20, AS AMENDED, RELATING TO THE PUNISHMENT FOR MURDER, SO AS TO ADD VIOLATION OF ANTI-TERRORISM LAWS TO THE LIST OF STATUTORY AGGRAVATING CIRCUMSTANCES; TO AMEND SECTION 16-16-20, AS AMENDED, RELATING TO COMPUTER CRIMES AND PENALTIES, SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT INTRODUCING A COMPUTER VIRUS, COMPUTER WORM, OR ANY OTHER DAMAGING PROGRAM INTO A COMPUTER SYSTEM IS A COMPUTER CRIME; TO AMEND SECTION 16-23-750, RELATING TO COMMUNICATING THREATS RELATING TO USE OF EXPLOSIVE, INCENDIARY, OR DESTRUCTIVE DEVICES, SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT IN ADDITION TO THE PENALTIES FOR A VIOLATION OF THIS SECTION, THE PRESIDING JUDGE SHALL ORDER THE OFFENDER TO MAKE FULL RESTITUTION FOR THE COST OF RESPONDING TO OR DEALING WITH THE THREAT OR FALSELY CONVEYED INFORMATION REGARDING THE THREATENED USE OF SUCH DEVICES AND TO PROVIDE FOR THE ELEMENTS OF THIS RESTITUTION; TO AMEND CHAPTER 23, TITLE 16, RELATING TO OFFENSES INVOLVING WEAPONS, BY ADDING SECTION 16-23-780 SO AS TO PROVIDE FOR ALTERNATIVE MAXIMUM IMPRISONMENT FOR CERTAIN OFFENSES INVOLVING THE USE OF ANTHRAX OR A BIOLOGICAL ORGANISM SO AS TO CAUSE DEATH OR INJURY IN HUMANS, ANIMALS, OR PLANTS; TO AMEND CHAPTER 23, TITLE 16, RELATING TO OFFENSES INVOLVING WEAPONS, BY ADDING SECTION 16-23-790 SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT IT IS UNLAWFUL FOR A PERSON TO KNOWINGLY INFECT, HARM, OR DESTROY A FIELD OR TRACT OF LAND, A STREAM OR BODY OF WATER, CROPS, PLANTS, VEGETATION, LIVESTOCK, WILDLIFE, OR FISH BY MEANS OF THE DIRECT OR INDIRECT USE OF A BIOLOGICAL, CHEMICAL, OR NUCLEAR WEAPON OF MASS DESTRUCTION, OR BY THE DIRECT OR INDIRECT USE OF A BIOLOGICAL, CHEMICAL, OR NUCLEAR AGENT OR SUBSTANCE, WITH THE INTENT OF CAUSING ECONOMIC OR PHYSICAL HARM TO A PERSON, A FIELD OR TRACT OF LAND, A STREAM OR BODY OF WATER, CROPS, PLANTS, VEGETATION, LIVESTOCK, WILDLIFE, OR FISH, OR TO ANY OTHER REAL OR PERSONAL PROPERTY, OR THE ENVIRONMENT, AND TO PROVIDE FOR PENALTIES AND RESTITUTION FOR VIOLATIONS OF THIS SECTION; TO AMEND CHAPTER 23, TITLE 16, RELATING TO OFFENSES INVOLVING WEAPONS, BY ADDING ARTICLE 9 SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT, EXCEPT AS EXPRESSLY AUTHORIZED AND PERMITTED BY FEDERAL LAW, IT IS UNLAWFUL FOR A PERSON TO MANUFACTURE, ASSEMBLE, POSSESS, STORE, TRANSPORT, SELL, PURCHASE, DELIVER, OR ACQUIRE NUCLEAR, BIOLOGICAL, OR CHEMICAL WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION, OR BIOLOGICAL AGENTS OR TOXINS, OR TO USE, THREATEN TO USE, OR ATTEMPT TO USE THESE WEAPONS, AGENTS, OR TOXINS; TO PROVIDE THAT IT IS UNLAWFUL FOR A PERSON TO KNOWINGLY MAKE A FALSE REPORT CONCERNING THESE WEAPONS, AGENTS, OR TOXINS; TO PROVIDE THAT IT IS UNLAWFUL FOR A PERSON TO PERPETRATE A HOAX BY THE USE OF AN ARTIFACT, REPLICA, OR FALSE REPLICA OF THESE WEAPONS, AGENTS, OR TOXINS; TO PROVIDE THAT THE UNLAWFUL KILLING OF A PERSON BY MEANS OF THESE WEAPONS, AGENTS, OR TOXINS IS MURDER; TO REQUIRE PERSONS WHO KNOWINGLY OR INTENTIONALLY COMMIT ANY OFFENSE INVOLVING THESE WEAPONS, AGENTS, OR TOXINS BE PROSECUTED AND SENTENCED IN ACCORDANCE WITH THIS ARTICLE, AND TO PROVIDE FOR PENALTIES FOR VIOLATIONS OF THE PROVISIONS OF THIS ARTICLE; TO REQUIRE STATE, COUNTY, AND MUNICIPAL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS TO MAKE CERTAIN REPORTS TO THE STATE LAW ENFORCEMENT DIVISION AND PUBLIC HEALTH OFFICIALS RELATING TO BIOLOGICAL AGENTS, TOXINS, AND DELIVERY SYSTEMS AND TO PROVIDE PENALTIES FOR VIOLATIONS OF THIS ARTICLE; BY ADDING SECTION 12-6-3545 SO AS TO ALLOW A LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICER, FIREFIGHTER, OR EMERGENCY MEDICAL TECHNICIAN EMPLOYED BY THIS STATE OR A POLITICAL SUBDIVISION OF THIS STATE A CREDIT AGAINST THE STATE INCOME TAX IN CONNECTION WITH DUTY IN RESPONDING TO A TERRORIST ACT AND TO PROVIDE THE AMOUNT OF THE CREDIT AND ITS ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS; TO ALLOW A STATE INDIVIDUAL INCOME TAX DEDUCTION FOR MEMBERS OF A STATE NATIONAL GUARD UNIT FEDERALIZED OR A RESERVIST CALLED TO ACTIVE DUTY FOR PARTICIPATION IN "OPERATION ENDURING FREEDOM" OR "OPERATION NOBLE EAGLE", OR BOTH; TO AMEND ARTICLE 1, CHAPTER 5, TITLE 39, RELATING TO THE SOUTH CAROLINA UNFAIR TRADE PRACTICES ACT, BY ADDING SECTION 39-5-145 SO AS TO PROHIBIT THE RENTAL AND SALE OF ESSENTIAL COMMODITIES AND RENTAL AND LEASE OF DWELLING UNITS, INCLUDING MOTEL OR HOTEL UNITS OR OTHER TEMPORARY LODGING, OR SELF-STORAGE FACILITIES AT AN UNCONSCIONABLE PRICE DURING AND WITHIN THE AREA OF A DECLARED STATE OF EMERGENCY OR DISASTER, TO DEFINE "COMMODITY" AND "UNCONSCIONABLE PRICE", TO ESTABLISH EVIDENTIARY STANDARDS FOR ACTIONS BROUGHT PURSUANT TO THESE PROVISIONS OR LOCAL ORDINANCES, AND TO PROVIDE FOR THE ADDITIONAL CIVIL PENALTY OF UP TO TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR VIOLATIONS OCCURRING OVER A TWENTY-FOUR-HOUR PERIOD AND FOR A CRIMINAL PENALTY OF IMPRISONMENT FOR NOT MORE THAN THIRTY DAYS FOR A WILFUL VIOLATION OF THESE PROVISIONS; BY ADDING SECTION 39-5-147 SO AS TO PROHIBIT THE USE OF A MISLEADING PRACTICE OR DEVICE FOR THE SOLICITATION OF CONTRIBUTIONS OR THE SALE OF GOODS OR SERVICES FOR CHARITABLE PURPOSES IN CONNECTION WITH A DECLARED STATE OF EMERGENCY OR DISASTER, AND TO PROVIDE FOR THE ADDITIONAL CIVIL PENALTY OF UP TO TWENTY-FIVE THOUSAND DOLLARS FOR VIOLATIONS OCCURRING OVER A TWENTY-FOUR-HOUR PERIOD AND FOR A CRIMINAL PENALTY OF IMPRISONMENT FOR NOT MORE THAN THIRTY DAYS FOR A WILFUL VIOLATION OF THESE PROVISIONS; AND TO AMEND SECTIONS 16-7-10, RELATING TO ILLEGAL ACTS DURING A STATE OF EMERGENCY, AND 33-56-120, AS AMENDED, RELATING TO PROHIBITION OF MISREPRESENTATIONS IN CHARITABLE SOLICITATIONS, BOTH SO AS TO CONFORM THEM TO THESE PROVISIONS AND MAKE THE PENALTIES FOR VIOLATIONS CUMULATIVE AND ADDITIONAL; BY ADDING SECTION 8-1-200 SO AS TO PROVIDE FOR LEAVES OF ABSENCE FOR PUBLIC OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES TRAINED BY THE AMERICAN RED CROSS FOR DISASTER RESPONSE OR EMERGENCY AND TO AUTHORIZE CERTAIN STATE OFFICERS AND EMPLOYEES TO PARTICIPATE IN AMERICAN RED CROSS DISASTER RESPONSE OR EMERGENCY RELIEF AT DISASTER OR EMERGENCY SITES WITHIN, OR OUTSIDE THE STATE; TO AMEND SECTION 51-3-60, RELATING TO FREE ADMISSION TO STATE PARKS AND REDUCED RATES FOR USE OF PARK CAMPSITES, SO AS TO EXTEND THESE PRIVILEGES TO POLICE, FIREFIGHTERS, AND EMERGENCY MEDICAL TECHNICIANS AND PARAMEDICS; BY ADDING SECTION 59-149-25 SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT IN-STATE RESIDENTS ARE ELIGIBLE FOR LIFE SCHOLARSHIPS WITHOUT THE NECESSITY OF MEETING ANY ACADEMIC QUALIFICATIONS EXCEPT FOR THE NECESSITY OF BEING ACCEPTED UNDER APPLICABLE ADMISSION REQUIREMENTS OF THE STATE INSTITUTION THEY ARE TO ATTEND IF ONE OF THEIR PARENTS OR LEGAL GUARDIANS DIED AS A RESULT OF THE TERRORIST ATTACKS ON SEPTEMBER 11, 2001, AND TO PROVIDE THE REQUIREMENTS AND PROCEDURES TO QUALIFY FOR THESE SCHOLARSHIPS; BY ADDING SECTION 53-3-150 SO AS TO DESIGNATE THE ELEVENTH DAY OF SEPTEMBER OF EACH YEAR AS A STATE DAY OF REMEMBRANCE TO THE VICTIMS OF THE SEPTEMBER 11, 2001 TERRORIST ATTACKS AND TO THE COURAGEOUS ACTIONS OF ALL LAW ENFORCEMENT OFFICERS AND RESCUE WORKERS; TO AMEND SECTION 59-1-443, RELATING TO SCHOOLS PROVIDING A MINUTE OF MANDATORY SILENCE AT THE BEGINNING OF EACH SCHOOL DAY, SO AS TO PROVIDE THAT SCHOOLS INSTEAD SHALL PROVIDE FOR A DAILY OBSERVANCE OF ONE MINUTE OF VOLUNTARY SILENT PRAYER, MEDITATION, OR OTHER SILENT ACTIVITY; BY ADDING SECTION 59-1-460 SO AS TO REQUIRE PRINCIPALS AND TEACHERS IN PUBLIC ELEMENTARY AND SECONDARY SCHOOLS TO DISPLAY THE MOTTO OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA IN EACH CLASSROOM, SCHOOL AUDITORIUM, AND CAFETERIA.

    Amend Title To Conform

Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the State of South Carolina:

SECTION    1.     This act may be cited as the "South Carolina Homeland Security Act".

SECTION    2.     The General Assembly finds that:

    (1)    because of the tragic events of September 11, 2001, involving acts of terrorism against the people of the United States and because of continued threats against the peace and safety of our nation, appropriate measures must be taken to ensure the safety of the citizens of South Carolina;

    (2)    legislative enhancements must be enacted to provide law enforcement, public health officials, and other emergency workers with the proper means and tools to enable them to protect and defend South Carolina and her citizens while preserving individual constitutional rights and liberties and also to maintain order, preserve the peace, preserve health, and reduce injuries and casualties in the event that terrorist acts occur on South Carolina soil.

SECTION    3.     Section 1-3-420 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 1-3-420.    The Governor, when in his opinion the facts warrant, shall, by proclamation, declare that, because of unlawful assemblage, violence or threats of violence, or a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130, a danger exists to the person or property of any citizen and that the peace and tranquility of the State, or any political subdivision thereof, or any particular area of the State designated by him, is threatened, and because thereof an emergency, with reference to such threats and danger, exists.

    The Governor, upon the issuance of a proclamation as provided for in this section, shall forthwith must immediately file such the proclamation in the office Office of the Secretary of State, which proclamation shall be is effective upon issuance and remain in full force and effect until revoked by the Governor."

SECTION    4.     Article 1, Chapter 11, Title 1 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 1-11-435.    To protect the State's critical information technology infrastructure and associated data systems in the event of a major disaster, whether natural or otherwise, and to allow the services to the citizens of this State to continue in such an event, the Office of the State Chief Information Officer (CIO) should develop a Critical Information Technology Infrastructure Protection Plan devising policies and procedures to provide for the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of, and to allow for alternative and immediate on-line access to critical data and information systems including, but not limited to, health and human services, law enforcement, and related agency data necessary to provide critical information to citizens and ensure the protection of state employees as they carry out their disaster-related duties. All state agencies and political subdivisions of this State are directed to assist the Office of the State CIO in the collection of data required for this plan."

SECTION    5.     The 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 1-11-770.    (A)    Subject to appropriations, the General Assembly authorizes the state Budget and Control Board to plan, develop, and implement a statewide South Carolina 211 Network, which must serve as the single point of coordination for information and referral for health and human services. The objectives for establishing the South Carolina 211 Network are to:

        (1)    provide comprehensive and cost-effective access to health and human services information;

        (2)    improve access to accurate information by simplifying and enhancing state and local health and human services information and referral systems and by fostering collaboration among information and referral systems;

        (3)    electronically connect local information and referral systems to each other, to service providers, and to consumers of information and referral services;

        (4)    establish and promote standards for data collection and for distributing information among state and local organizations;

        (5)    promote the use of a common dialing access code and the visibility and public awareness of the availability of information and referral services;

        (6)    provide a management and administrative structure to support the South Carolina 211 Network and establish technical assistance, training, and support programs for information and referral-service programs;

        (7)    test methods for integrating information and referral services with local and state health and human services programs and for consolidating and streamlining eligibility and case-management processes;

        (8)    provide access to standardized, comprehensive data to assist in identifying gaps and needs in health and human services programs; and

        (9)    provide a unified systems plan with a developed platform, taxonomy, and standards for data management and access.

    (B)    In order to participate in the South Carolina 211 Network, a 211 provider must be certified by the board. The board must develop criteria for certification, and must adopt the criteria as regulations.

        (1)    If any provider of information and referral services or other entity leases a 211 number from a local exchange company and is not certified by the agency, the agency shall, after consultation with the local exchange company and the Public Service Commission, request that the Federal Communications Commission direct the local exchange company to revoke the use of the 211 number.

        (2)    The agency shall seek the assistance and guidance of the Public Service Commission and the Federal Communications Commission in resolving any disputes arising over jurisdiction related to 211 numbers."

SECTION    6.     Article 1, Chapter 11, Title 6 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 6-11-340.    (A)    The General Assembly finds that the public interest requires the safeguarding and protection of facilities owned by special purpose districts, such as water treatment plants, water storage tanks, wastewater treatment plants, pumping stations, and natural gas storage facilities. The health, safety, and protection of human life is dependent, in part, upon these facilities being properly protected from attack by terrorists or others seeking to disrupt the proper operation of facilities.

    (B)    For purposes of this section, 'special purpose district' means a special purpose district charged with the operation and maintenance of natural gas distribution facilities, wastewater plants or treatment facilities, or water treatment facilities, or with the operation and management of any water distribution system.

    (C)    Each special purpose district is authorized to establish a public safety department to protect and police the facilities owned by the district under such reasonable rules and regulations as the district may from time to time promulgate. The district may appoint and commission as many public safety officers as necessary for the proper security, general welfare, and convenience of the facilities. The public safety officers must be vested with all powers and duties conferred by law upon constables in addition to duties imposed upon them by the governing body of the district. The jurisdiction of these public safety officers is limited to the property of the special purpose district and the streets and roads through and contiguous to the property, except that these officers may not make an incidental arrest of a person for, or issue a ticket for, a traffic violation.

    (D)    The public safety officers appointed and commissioned by a special purpose district must be law enforcement officers trained and certified pursuant to Article 9, Chapter 6, Title 23, in accordance with the training and certification standards established for officers performing similar duties. The expense of the training must be paid by the special purpose district by which that person is employed and the Criminal Justice Academy Division of the Department of Public Safety is authorized to establish and collect a fee for this training."

SECTION    7.     Section 14-7-1630(A) of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "(A)    The jurisdiction of a state grand jury impaneled under this article extends throughout the State. The subject matter jurisdiction of a state grand jury in all cases is limited to the following offenses:

        (1)    crimes involving narcotics, dangerous drugs, or controlled substances, or any crime arising out of or in connection with a crime involving narcotics, dangerous drugs, or controlled substances including, but not limited to, money laundering as specified in Section 44-53-475, obstruction of justice, perjury or subornation of perjury, and crimes involving obscenity or any attempt, aiding, abetting, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit any of the aforementioned crimes if the crimes are of a multi-county nature or have transpired or are transpiring or have significance in more than one county of this State; and

        (2)    any crime, statutory, common law or other, involving public corruption as defined in Section 14-7-1615, any crime, statutory, common law or other, arising out of or in connection with a crime involving public corruption as defined in Section 14-7-1615, and any attempt, aiding, abetting, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit any crime, statutory, common law or other, involving public corruption as defined in Section 14-7-1615; and

        (3)    crimes involving the election laws, including, but not limited to, those named offenses as specified in Title 7, or any common law crimes involving the election laws where not superseded, or any crime arising out of or in connection with the election laws, or any attempt, aiding, abetting, solicitation, or conspiracy to commit a crime involving the election laws.;

        (4)    crimes involving computer crimes, pursuant to Chapter 16, Title 16, or any conspiracy or solicitation to commit these crimes; and

        (5)    crimes involving terrorism, or any conspiracy or solicitation to commit these crimes. Terrorism includes activities that:

            (a)    involve acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of the criminal laws of this State;

            (b)    appear to be intended to:

                (i)        intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

                (ii)    influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion; or

                (iii)    affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction, assassination, or kidnapping; and

            (c)    occur primarily within the territorial jurisdiction of this State."

SECTION    8.     Section 16-7-10 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 16-7-10.    (A)    In any area designated by the Governor in his proclamation that a state of emergency exists, and during the duration of such the proclamation, it shall be is unlawful for a person to:

        (1)(a)    For any person to violate a provision set forth in the proclamation; for any person to violate the provisions of any curfew established, including, but not limited to, any curfew set forth by the proclamation;

            (b)    for any unauthorized persons to congregate, except unless authorized or in their homes, in groups of three or more and to refuse to disperse upon order of any law enforcement a law enforcement officer; or

            (c)    for any person to willfully wilfully fail or refuse to comply with any lawful order or direction of any law-enforcement law enforcement officer.

    Any A person violating the provisions of this section shall be deemed is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, shall must be fined not more than one hundred dollars or be imprisoned for not more than thirty days.

        (b)(2)(a)    For any person to enter into the property of another, without lawful authority and with criminal intent;

            (b)    to damage the property of another; or

            (c)    to take possession or otherwise disturb the property of another in any manner.

    Any of such acts shall constitute the offense A person violating a provision of this item is guilty of the felony of looting, and any person convicted thereof shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, shall must be punished by a fine or imprisonment fined or imprisoned, or both, in the discretion of the court. The court must order restitution pursuant to Section 17-25-322;

        (3)    charge unconscionable prices during a declared state of emergency or disaster, as described in Section 39-5-145, or knowingly and wilfully use a misleading practice or device to solicit the contribution or sale of goods or services for charitable purposes in connection with a declared state of emergency or disaster, as described in Section 39-5-147.

    (B)    Penalties provided in this article are cumulative of and in addition to those provided in Sections 39-5-145 and 39-5-147."

SECTION    9.     Section 16-16-10 of the 1976 Code, as last amended by Act 169 of 2002, is further amended to read:

    "Section 16-16-10.    For purposes of this chapter:

    (a)    'Computer' means a device that performs logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by manipulating impulses, and includes including, but not limited to, all input, output, processing, storage, computer software, and communication facilities that are connected or related to a computer in a computer system or computer network, but does not include a computer or other device which is not used to access, to communicate with, or to manipulate any other computer. For the purposes of this section, 'computer' includes, but is not limited to, mainframes, servers, workstations, desktops, and notebooks; industrial controls such as programmable logic controllers and supervisory control and data acquisition systems; portable hand-held computing devices such as personal digital assistants and digital cellular telephones; data communications network devices such as routers and switches; and all other devices that are computer-based or communicate with or are under the control of a computer such as appropriate telephone switches, medical devices, and cable and satellite television interface systems. 'Computer' does not include automated typewriters or typesetters.

    (b)    'Computer network' means the interconnection of communications lines, or any other communications facilities, with a computer through remote terminals, or a system consisting of two or more interconnected computers, and those devices and facilities through which an interconnection occurs.

    (c)    'Computer program' means a series of instructions or statements executable on a computer, which directs direct the computer system in a manner to process data or perform other specified functions.

    (d)    'Computer software' means a set of computer programs, data, procedures, or associated documentation concerned with the operation of a computer system.

    (e)    'Computer system' means a set of related, whether connected or unconnected, computer equipment, devices, or software.

    (f)    'Property' includes, but is not limited to, financial instruments, data, documents associated with computer systems, and computer software, or copies thereof, whether tangible or intangible, including both human and computer system readable data, and data while in transit.

    (g)    'Services'includes include, but is are not limited to, the use of the computer system, computer network, computer programs, or data prepared for computer use, or data obtained within a computer system, or data contained within a computer network.

    (h)    'Data' means a representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions that has been prepared or is being prepared in a formalized manner and has been processed, is being processed, or is intended to be processed in a computer, computer system, or computer network. Data may be in any form including, but not limited to, computer printouts, magnetic storage media, optical storage media, network data packets, flash memory cards, smart card memory, punched cards, or as stored in the memory of the computer or in transit or displayed on a video device.

    (i)     'Access' means to gain entry to, attempt to gain entry to, instruct, communicate with, attempt to communicate with, store or alter data in, retrieve or remove data from, or otherwise make use of or attempt to make use of the logical, arithmetic, or memory function resources control, memory, storage, output, or communication functions of a computer, computer system, or computer network.

    (j) 'Computer hacking' means:

        (1)    accessing or attempting to access all or part of a computer, computer system, or a computer network without express or implied authorization for the purpose of establishing contact only;

        (2)    with the intent to defraud or with malicious intent to commit another a crime after such the contact is established.;

        (3)    misusing computer or network services including, but not limited to, mail transfer programs, file transfer programs, proxy servers, and web servers by performing functions not authorized by the appropriate principal of the computer, computer system, or computer network. Misuse of computer and network services includes, but is not limited to, the unauthorized use of:

            (i)     mail transfer programs to send mail to persons other than the authorized users of that computer or computer network;

            (ii)    file transfer program proxy services or proxy servers to access other computers, computer systems, or computer networks; and

            (iii)    web servers to redirect users to other web pages or web servers;

        (4)    using a group of computer programs commonly known as 'port scanners' or 'probes' to intentionally access any computer, computer system, or computer network without the permission of the appropriate principal of the computer, computer system, or computer network. This group of computer programs includes, but is not limited to, those computer programs that use a computer network to access a computer, computer system, or another computer network to determine:

        (i)     the presence or types of computers or computer systems on a network;

        (ii)    the computer network's facilities and capabilities;

        (iii)    the availability of computer or network services;

        (iv)    the presence or versions of computer software, including, but not limited to, operating systems, computer services, or computer contaminants;

        (v)    the presence of a known computer software deficiency that can be used to gain unauthorized access to a computer, computer system, or computer network; or

        (vi)    any other information about a computer, computer system, or computer network not necessary for the normal and lawful operation of the computer initiating the access.

    This group of computer programs does not include standard computer software used for the normal operation, administration, management, and test of a computer, computer system, or computer network, including, but not limited to, operating system services such as domain name services and mail transfer services, network monitoring and management computer software such as the computer programs commonly called 'ping', 'tcpdump', and 'traceroute', and systems administration computer software such as the computer programs commonly known as 'nslookup' and 'whois'. It is unlawful to intentionally and knowingly use such computer software to access any computer, computer system, or computer network to adversely affect computer or network access or performance; and

        (5)    the intentional use of a computer, computer system, or a computer network in a manner that exceeds any right or permission granted by the appropriate principal of the computer, computer system, or computer network.

    Computer hacking does not include the introduction of a computer contaminant into a computer, computer system, computer program, or computer network.

    (k)    'Computer contaminant' means a computer program designed to modify, damage, destroy, disable, deny or degrade access to, allow unauthorized access to, functionally impair, record, or transmit information within a computer, computer system, or computer network without the consent express or implied consent of the owner. Computer contaminant includes, but is not limited to,:

        (1)    a group of computer programs commonly known as 'viruses' and 'worms' that are self-replicating or self-propagating, and that are designed to contaminate other computer programs, compromise computer security, consume computer resources, modify, destroy, record, or transmit data, or in some fashion usurp disrupt the normal operation of the computer, computer system, or computer network.;

        (2)    a group of computer programs commonly known as 'Trojans' or 'Trojan horses' that are not self-replicating or self-propagating, and that are designed to compromise computer security, consume computer resources, modify, destroy, record, or transmit data, or disrupt the normal operation of the computer, computer system, or computer network;

        (3)    a group of computer programs commonly known as 'zombies' that are designed to use a computer without the knowledge and consent of the appropriate principal, and that are designed to send large quantities of data to a targeted computer network for the purpose of degrading the targeted computer's or network's performance, or denying access through the network to the targeted computer or network, resulting in what is commonly know as 'Denial of Service' or 'Distributed Denial of Service' attacks; or

        (4)    a group of computer programs commonly know as 'trap doors', 'back doors', or 'root kits' that are designed to bypass standard authentication software, and that are designed to allow access to or use of a computer without the knowledge or consent of the appropriate principal.

    (l)        'Unauthorized access' means access of a computer, computer system, or computer network not explicitly or implicitly authorized by the appropriate principal of the computer, computer system, or computer network.

    (m)    'Unauthorized use' means the:

        (i)        use of a computer, computer system, or computer network not explicitly or implicitly authorized by the appropriate principal of the computer, computer system, or computer network;

        (ii)    the use of computer software not explicitly or implicitly authorized by the appropriate principal or licensee of the computer software; or

        (iii)    the authorized use of a computer, computer system, computer network, or computer software in an manner not explicitly or implicitly authorized by the appropriate principal or licensee."

SECTION    10.    Section 16-16-20 of the 1976 Code, as amended by Act 169 of 2002, is further amended to read:

    "Section 16-16-20.    (1)    It is unlawful for a person to wilfully, knowingly, maliciously, and without authorization or for an unauthorized purpose to:

        (a)    directly or indirectly access or cause to be accessed a computer, computer system, or computer network for the purpose of:

            (i)     devising or executing a scheme or artifice to defraud;

            (ii)    obtaining money, property, or services by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations, promises; or

            (iii)    committing any other crime.

        (b)    alter, damage, destroy, or modify a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, or data contained in that computer, computer system, computer program, or computer network or introduce a computer contaminant into that computer, computer system, computer program, or computer network.

    (2)    A person is guilty of computer crime in the first degree if the amount of gain directly or indirectly derived from the offense made unlawful by subsection (1) or the loss directly or indirectly suffered by the victim exceeds five ten thousand dollars. Computer crime in the first degree is a felony and, upon conviction, a person must be fined not more than one hundred twenty-five fifty thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than ten five years, or both.

    (3)(a)    A person is guilty of computer crime in the second degree if the amount of gain directly or indirectly derived from the offense made unlawful by subsection (1) or the loss directly or indirectly suffered by the victim is greater than one thousand dollars but not more than five ten thousand dollars.

        (b)    A person is also guilty of computer crime in the second degree where:

            (i)        he interferes with, causes to be interfered with, denies or causes to be denied any computer or network service to an authorized user of the computer or network service for the purpose of devising or executing any scheme or artifice to defraud, or obtaining money, property, or services by means of false or fraudulent pretenses, representations, or promises, or committing any other felony;

            (ii)    he deprives the owner of possession of, or takes, transfers, conceals, or retains possession of any computer, data, computer property, or computer-related property, including all parts of a computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer services, or information associated with a computer, whether in a tangible or intangible form; or

            (iii)    the gain derived from the offense made unlawful by subsection (1) or loss suffered by the victim cannot reasonably be ascertained.

        (c)    Computer crime in the second degree is a misdemeanor and, upon conviction for a first offense, a person must be fined not more than fifty ten thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than three years one year, or both. Upon conviction for a second or subsequent offense, a person is guilty of a felony misdemeanor and must be fined not more than fifty twenty thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than five two years, or both.

    (4)    A person is guilty of computer crime in the third degree if the amount of gain directly or indirectly derived from the offense made unlawful by subsection (1) or the loss directly or indirectly suffered by the victim is not more than one thousand dollars. A person is also guilty of computer crime in the third degree if he wilfully, knowingly, and without authorization or for an unauthorized purpose engages in computer hacking. Computer crime in the third degree is a misdemeanor and, upon conviction for a first offense, a person must be fined not more than two hundred dollars or imprisoned not more than thirty days. Upon conviction for a second or subsequent offense, a person must be fined not more than two thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than two years, or both.

    (5)    Each computer, computer system, or computer network affected by the violation of this chapter constitutes a separate violation."

SECTION    11.    Section 16-16-25 of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 169 of 2002, is amended to read:

    "Section 16-16-25.    In addition to other civil remedies available, the owner or lessee of a computer, computer system, computer network, computer program, or data may bring a civil action against a person convicted under this chapter for compensatory damages, and restitution, and attorney's fees. Compensatory damages and restitution may include:

    (1)    expenditures reasonably and necessarily incurred by the owner or lessee to verify whether a computer system, computer network, computer program, or data was altered, damaged, or deleted by the access;

    (2)    costs of repairing or, if necessary, replacing the affected computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, or database data;

    (3)    lost profits for the period that the computer, computer system, computer network, computer software, computer program, or database data was unusable; and

    (4)    costs of replacing or restoring the data lost or damaged as a result of a violation of this chapter."

SECTION    12.    Section 16-16-30 of the 1976 Code, as last amended by Act 169 of 2002, is further amended to read:

    "Section 16-16-30.     For the purpose of venue under this chapter, a violation of this chapter is considered to have been committed in the county in which the violation took place; however, upon proper motion and the proper showing before a judge, venue may be transferred if justice would be better served by the transfer, to one of the following:

    (1)    a county in which an act was performed in furtherance of a transaction which violated this chapter;

    (2)    the county of the principal place of business in this State of the owner or lessee of a computer, computer system, computer network, or any part of it, which has been subject to the violation; or

    (3)    a county in which a violator had control or possession of proceeds of the violation or of books, records, documents, property, financial instrument instruments, computer software, computer program programs, or other material materials or objects which were used in the furtherance of the violation."

SECTION    13.    Article 7, Chapter 23, Title 16 of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 237 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "Article 7.

    Bombs, Destructive Devices, and Weapons of Mass Destruction

    Section 16-23-710.    For purposes of this article:

    (1)    'Bacteriological weapon' and 'biological weapon' mean devices which are designed in a manner as to permit the intentional release into the population or environment of microbiological or other biological materials, toxins, or agents, whatever their origin or method of production, in a manner not authorized by law, or any device, the development, production, or stockpiling of which is prohibited pursuant to the 'Convention of the Prohibition of the Development, Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and their Destruction', 26 U.S.T. 583, TIAS 8063.

    (2)    'Bomb' includes a destructive device capable of being detonated, triggered, or set off to release any substance or material that is destructive, irritating, odoriferous, or otherwise harmful to one or more organisms including, but not limited to, human beings, livestock, animals, crops or vegetation, or to earth, air, water, or any other material or substance necessary or required to sustain human or any other individual form of life, or to real or personal property.

    (3)    'Bomb technician', 'explosive ordnance technician', or 'EOD technician' means either:

        (a)    a law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, or an employee of the State, its political subdivisions, or an authority of the State or a political subdivision, whose job title includes the designation of bomb technician, explosive ordnance disposal technician, or EOD technician and whose assigned duties include the rendering-safe of improvised explosive devices, destructive devices, old or abandoned explosives, war relics, or souvenirs while acting in the performance of his official duties; or

        (b)    an official or employee of the United States including, but not limited to, a member of the Armed Forces of the United States, who is qualified as an explosive ordnance disposal technician under the federal, state, or local laws or regulations while acting in the performance of his duty.

    (4)    'Building' means any structure, vehicle, watercraft, or aircraft:

        (a)    where any person lodges or lives; or

        (b)    where people assemble for purposes of business, government, education, religion, entertainment, public transportation, or public use or where goods are stored. Where a building consists of two or more units separately occupied or secured, each unit is considered both a separate building in itself and a part of the main building.

    (5)    'Device' means an object, contrivance, instrument, technique, or any thing that is designed, manufactured, assembled, or capable of serving any purpose in a bomb, destructive device, explosive, incendiary, or weapon of mass destruction.

    (6)    'Detonate' means to explode or cause to explode.

    (7)    'Destructive device' means:

        (a)    a bomb, incendiary device, or anything any thing that can detonate, explode, be released, or burn by mechanical, chemical, or nuclear means, or that contains an explosive, incendiary, poisonous gas, or toxic substance (chemical, biological, or nuclear materials) including, but not limited to, an incendiary or over-pressure device, or any other device capable of causing damage, injury, or death;

        (b)    a weapon of mass destruction;

        (c)(b)    a bacteriological weapon or biological weapon; or

        (d)(c)    a combination of any parts, components, chemical compounds, or other substances, either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device which has been or can be assembled to cause damage, injury, or death.

    (8)    'Detonator' means a device containing a detonating charge used to initiate detonation in an explosive or any device capable of triggering or setting off an explosion or explosive charge including, but not limited to, impact or an impact device, a timing mechanism, electricity, a primer, primer or detonating cord, a detonating cap or device of any kind, detonating waves, electric blasting caps, blasting caps for use with safety fuses, shock tube initiator, and detonating cord delay connectors, or any other device capable of detonating or exploding a bomb, weapon of mass destruction, or destructive device.

    (9)    'Distribute' means the actual or constructive delivery or the attempted transfer from one person to another.

    (10)    'Explosive' means a chemical compound or other substance or a mechanical system intended for the purpose of producing an explosion capable of causing injury, death, or damage to property or one an explosive containing oxidizing and combustible units or other ingredients in such proportions or quantities that ignition, fire, friction, concussion, percussion, or detonation may produce an explosion capable of causing injury, death, or damage to property. Explosives include, but are not limited to, the list of explosive materials published and periodically updated by the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms.

    (11)    'Hoax device' or 'replica' means a device or object which has the appearance of a destructive device.

    (12)    'Incendiary' means any material that:

        (a)    causes, or is capable of causing, fire when it is lit or ignited; and

        (b)    is used to ignite a flammable liquid or compound in an unlawful manner.

    (13)    'Incendiary device' means a destructive device, however possessed or delivered, and by whatever name called, containing or holding a flammable liquid or compound, which is capable of being ignited by any means possible. Incendiary device includes, but is not limited to, any form of explosive, explosive bomb, grenade, missile, or similar device, whether capable of being carried or thrown by a person acting alone or with one or more persons, but does not include a device manufactured or produced for the primary purpose of illumination or for marking detours, obstructions, defective paving, or other hazards on streets, roads, highways, or bridges, when used in a lawful manner.

    (14)    'Over-pressure device' means a container filled with an explosive gas or expanding gas or liquid which is designed or constructed so as to cause the container to break, fracture, or rupture in a manner capable of causing death, bodily harm injury, or property damage, and includes, but is not limited to, a chemical reaction bomb, an acid bomb, a caustic bomb, or a dry ice bomb.

    (15)    'Parts' means mean a combination of parts, components, chemical compounds, or other substances, designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device.

    (16)    'Poisonous gases' means mean a toxic chemical or its precursors that through its chemical action or properties on life processes, causes death or injury to human beings or other living organisms. However, the term does not include:

        (a)    riot control agents, smoke and obscuration materials, or medical products which are manufactured, possessed, transported, or used in accordance with the laws of this State or the United States;

        (b)    tear gas devices designed to be carried on or about the person which contain not more than fifty cubic centimeters of the chemical; or

        (c)    pesticides, as used in agriculture and household products.

    (17)    'Property' means real or personal property of any kind including money, choses in action, and other similar interest in property.

    (18)     'Terrorism' includes activities that:

        (a)    involve acts dangerous to human life that are a violation of the criminal laws of this State;

        (b)    appear to be intended to:

            (i)        intimidate or coerce a civilian population;

            (ii)    influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion; or

            (iii)    affect the conduct of a government by mass destruction, assassination, or kidnapping; and

        (c)    occur primarily within the territorial jurisdiction of this State."

    (18)(19)    'Weapon of mass destruction' means any device designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level that will result in internal or external bodily injury or death to a person.:

        (a)    any destructive device as defined in item (7);

        (b)    any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or their precursors;

        (c)    any weapon involving a disease organism; or

        (d)    any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.

    Section 16-23-715.     A person who, without lawful authority, possesses, uses, threatens, or attempts or conspires to possess or use a weapon of mass destruction in furtherance of an act of terrorism is guilty of a felony and upon conviction:

    (1)    in cases resulting in the death of another person, must be punished by death or by imprisonment for life; or

    (2)    in cases which do not result in the death of another person, must be punished by imprisonment for not less than twenty-five years nor more than life.

    Section 16-23-720.    (A)    It is unlawful for a person intentionally to detonate use a destructive device or cause an explosion, or intentionally to aid, counsel, solicit another, or procure an explosion by means of detonation the use of a destructive device. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction:

        (1)    in cases resulting in the death of another person where there was malice aforethought, must be punished by death, by imprisonment for life, or by a mandatory minimum term of imprisonment for thirty years;

        (2)    in cases resulting in the death of another person where there was not malice aforethought, must be imprisoned not less than two ten years nor more than thirty years; and

        (3)    in cases resulting in injury to a person, must be imprisoned for not less than ten years nor more than twenty-five years.

    (B)    A person who intentionally causes an explosion by means of a destructive device or aids, counsels, solicits another, or procures an explosion by means of a destructive device, which results in damage to a building or other real or personal property, or a person who attempts to injure another or damage or destroy a building or other real or personal property by means of a destructive device, is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not less than two ten years nor more than twenty-five years.

    (C)    A person who knowingly possesses, manufactures, transports, distributes, or possesses with the intent to distribute a destructive device or any explosive, incendiary device, or over-pressure device or toxic substance or material which has been configured to cause damage, injury, or death, or a person who possesses parts, components, or materials which when assembled constitute a destructive device is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not less than two years nor more than fifteen years.

    (D)    A person who threatens, solicits another to threaten, or conspires to threaten to cause damage, injury, or death or to cause damage to or destroy a building or other real or personal property by means of destructive device is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not more than fifteen years.

    (E)    A person who knowingly protects, harbors, or conceals another who is known by the person to have planned, executed, or commited any violation of the provisions of this article is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not more than fifteen years.

    Section 16-23-730.    A person who knowingly manufactures, possesses, transports, distributes, uses or aids, or counsels, solicits another, or conspires with another in the use of a hoax device or replica of a destructive device or detonator which causes any person reasonably to believe that the hoax device or replica is a destructive device or detonator is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not more than one year or fined not more than ten thousand dollars, or both. A person who communicates or transmits to another person that a hoax device or replica is a destructive device or detonator with the intent to intimidate or threaten injury, to obtain property of another, or to interfere with the ability of another person to conduct or carry on his life, business, trade, education, religious worship, or to interfere with the operations and functions of any government entity is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not less than two years nor more than fifteen years.

    Section 16-23-740.    A person who knowingly and wilfully hinders or obstructs an explosive ordnance technician, bomb technician, law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, public safety officer, animal trained to detect destructive devices, or any robot or mechanical device designed for or utilized by a law enforcement officer, fire official, emergency management official, public safety officer, or bomb technician of this State or of the United States while in the detection, disarming, or destruction of a destructive device is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned for not less than one year nor more than five years.

    Section 16-23-750.    A person who communicates a threat or conveys or causes to be conveyed false information, knowing the information to be false, concerning an attempt or alleged attempt being made or to be made to kill, injure, or intimidate any person or to damage or destroy any building or other real or personal property by means of an explosive, incendiary, or destructive device or who aids, agrees with employs, or conspires with any person to do or cause to be done any of the acts in this section, is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, for a first offense must be imprisoned for not less than one year nor more than ten years. For a second or subsequent offense, the person must be imprisoned for not less than five years nor more than fifteen years. A sentence imposed for a violation of this section must not be suspended and probation must not be granted.

    Section 16-23-760.    (A)    Unless otherwise ordered by a court of competent jurisdiction, photographs, electronic imaging, video tapes, or other identification or analysis of a destructive device, explosive, incendiary, poisonous gas, toxic substance, whether chemical, biological, or nuclear material, or detonator identified by a qualified bomb technician or person qualified as a forensic expert in the field of destructive devices is admissible in any civil or criminal trial in lieu of production of the actual destructive device or detonator. Evidence transferred to the clerk of court by a qualified bomb technician for safekeeping must not be destroyed except pursuant to a court order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction.

    (B)    If a destructive device, explosive, incendiary, poisonous gas, toxic substance, whether chemical, biological, or nuclear material, or detonator that has been rendered inert and safe is introduced into evidence in any criminal or civil trial, the clerk of court may retain custody or transfer custody of the destructive device or detonator to a qualified bomb technician for safekeeping only after the destructive device has been preserved as evidence by photograph, video tape, or other suitable means of identification.

    Section 16-23-770.    (A)    All property used or intended for use in violation of this article and all proceeds derived from, realized from, or traced back to property used or intended for use in violation of this article is contraband and subject to forfeiture. Property subject to forfeiture must be seized by a law enforcement agency and forfeited to the State, a political subdivision of the State, or the seizing law enforcement agency.

    (B)    On application of a seizing law enforcement agency, the circuit court may order the agency to destroy or transfer the seized device to any agency of this State or of the United States that can safely store or render harmless a destructive device, explosive, poisonous gas, or detonator if the court finds that it is impractical or unsafe for the seizing law enforcement agency to store the destructive device, explosive, poisonous gas, or detonator. Notwithstanding Section 16-23-760, the application for destruction of a destructive device may be made at anytime after seizure. Any destruction ordered pursuant to this subsection must be done in the presence of at least one credible witness or recorded on film, videotape, or other electronic imaging method. The court also may order the seizing agency or the agency to which the device, explosive, poisonous gas, or detonator is transferred to make a report of the destruction, take samples before the destruction, or both.

    (C)    Nothing in subsection (A) or (B) prohibits a bomb technician, law enforcement officer, or fire official from taking action that will render an explosive, destructive device, poisonous gas, or detonator, or other object which is suspected of being an explosive, destructive device, poisonous gas, or detonator safe without prior approval of a court when the action is in the performance of his duties and is intended to protect lives or property which are in imminent danger.

    (D)    The provisions of this article do not apply to the lawful use of:

        (1)    fertilizers, propellant activated devices, or propellant activated industrial tools manufactured, imported, distributed, or used for their intended purposes;

        (2)    pesticides which are manufactured, stored, transported, distributed, possessed, or used in accordance with Chapter 7, Title 2, the federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act and the Environmental Pesticide Control Act of 1972;

        (3)    explosives, blasting agents, detonators, and other objects regulated and controlled by the South Carolina Explosives Control Act;

        (4)    ammunition for small arms and firearms;

        (5)    components of ammunition for small arms and firearms;

        (6)    ammunition reloading equipment;

        (7)    the use of small arms propellant when used in war reenactments;

        (8)    firearms, as defined in Section 16-8-10; or

        (9)    fireworks and explosives which are permitted to be sold, possessed, or used under Chapter 35 of Title 23.

    (E)    The provisions of this article do not apply to the military or naval forces of the United States, to the duly organized military force of a state or territory, or to police or fire departments in this State when they are acting within their official capacities and in performance of their duties.

    Section 16-23-780.     All state, county, and municipal law enforcement officers who encounter a known or suspected destructive device, biological or bacteriological weapon or a nuclear, biological, or chemical weapon of mass destruction in the course of their employment must immediately report the existence and location of the device or weapon to the State Law Enforcement Division for purposes of disseminating the information to law enforcement agencies, and to the appropriate state and local public health officials for purposes of enabling public health officials to assess the nature and extent of the threat of the device or weapon to public health."

SECTION    14.    Title 17 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "CHAPTER 30

    Interception of Wire, Electronic, or Oral Communications

    Section 17-30-10.    The interception of wire, electronic, or oral communications is hereby authorized only in the manner permitted by this chapter.

    Section 17-30-15.    As used in this chapter:

    (1)    'Wire communication' means any aural transfer made in whole or in part through the use of facilities for the transmission of communications by the aid of wire, cable, or other like connection between the point of origin and the point of reception including the use of this connection in a switching station furnished or operated by any person engaged in providing or operating the facilities for the transmission of intrastate, interstate, or foreign communications or communications affecting intrastate, interstate, or foreign commerce. The term includes any electronic storage of the communication.

    (2)    'Oral communication' means any oral communication uttered by a person exhibiting an expectation that the communication is not subject to interception under circumstances justifying the expectation and does not mean any public oral communication uttered at a public meeting or any electronic communication.

    (3)    'Intercept' means the aural or other acquisition of the contents of any wire, electronic, or oral communication through the use of any electronic, mechanical, or other device.

    (4)    'Electronic, mechanical, or other device' means any device or apparatus which can be used to intercept a wire, electronic, or oral communication other than:

        (a)    any telephone or telegraph instrument, equipment, or facility, or any component thereof:

            ( i)    furnished to the subscriber or user by a provider of wire or electronic communication service in the ordinary course of its business and being used by the subscriber or user in the ordinary course of its business or furnished by the subscriber or user for connection to the facilities of the service and used in the ordinary course of its business; or

            (ii)    being used by a provider of wire or electronic communications service in the ordinary course of its business or by an investigative or law enforcement officer in the ordinary course of his duties; or

        (b)    a hearing aid or similar device being used to correct subnormal hearing to not better than normal.

    (5)    'Person' means an employee or agent of the State of South Carolina or political subdivision of the State, of the United States, or of any other state or political subdivision of the state, and any individual, partnership, association, joint stock company, trust, or corporation.

    (6)    'Investigative or law enforcement officer' means an officer of the State of South Carolina or political subdivision of the State, of the United States, or of any other state or political subdivision of the state, who is empowered by law to conduct on behalf of the government investigations of or to make arrests for offenses enumerated in this chapter or similar federal offenses.

    (7)    'Contents', when used with respect to any wire, oral, or electronic communication, include any information concerning the substance, purport, or meaning of that communication.

    (8)    'Judge of competent jurisdiction' means a circuit court judge designated by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of the State of South Carolina.

    (9)    'Reviewing authority' means a panel of three judges of the South Carolina Court of Appeals designated by the Chief Judge of the South Carolina Court of Appeals.

    (10)    'Aggrieved person' means a person who was a party to any intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication or a person against whom the interception was directed.

    (11)    'Law enforcement agency' means the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division (SLED) or an agency of the United States if the primary responsibility of the agency is the prevention and detection of crime and if its agents and officers are empowered by law to conduct criminal investigations and to make arrests.

    (12)    'Communication common carrier' has the same meaning which is given the term 'common carrier' in 47 U.S.C. Section 153(h).

    (13)    'Electronic communication' means any transfer of signs, signals, writing, images, sounds, data, or intelligence of any nature transmitted in whole or in part by a wire, radio, electromagnetic, photoelectronic, photooptical system, or any other device that affects intrastate, interstate, or foreign commerce, but does not include:

        (a)    any wire or oral communication;

        (b)    any communication made through a tone-only paging device;

        (c)    any communication from an electronic or mechanical device which permits the tracking of the movement of a person or an object; or

        (d)    electronic funds transfer information stored by a financial institution in a communications system used for the electronic storage and transfer of funds.

    (14)    'User' means any person or entity who:

        (a)    uses an electronic communication service; and

        (b)    is duly authorized by the provider of the service to engage in its use.

    (15)    'Electronic communications system' means any wire, radio, electromagnetic, photooptical, or photoelectronic facilities for the transmission of wire or electronic communications, and any computer facilities or related electronic equipment for the electronic storage of these communications.

    (16)    'Electronic communication service' means any service which provides to users of the service the ability to send or receive wire or electronic communications.

    (17)    'Readily accessible to the general public' means, with respect to a radio communication, that the communication is not:

        (a)    scrambled or encrypted;

        (b)    transmitted using modulation techniques whose essential parameters have been withheld from the public with the intention of preserving the privacy of the communication;

        (c)    carried on a subcarrier or other signal subsidiary to a radio transmission;

        (d)    transmitted over a communications system provided by a common carrier, unless the communication is a tone-only paging system communication; or

        (e)    transmitted on frequencies allocated under Part 25; Subpart D, Subpart E, or Subpart F of Part 74; or Part 94 of the Rules of the Federal Communications Commission, unless, in the case of a communication transmitted on a frequency allocated under Part 74 that is not exclusively allocated to broadcast auxiliary services, the communication is a two-way voice communication by radio.

    (18)    'Electronic storage' means:

        (a)    any temporary intermediate storage of a wire or electronic communication incidental to the electronic transmission of the communication; or

        (b)    any storage of a wire or electronic communication by an electronic communication service for purposes of backup protection of such communication.

    (19)    'Aural transfer' means a transfer containing the human voice at any point between and including the point of origin and the point of reception.

    (20)    'Remote computing service' means the provision to the public of computer storage or processing services by means of an electronic communications system.

    (21)    'Pen register' means a device which records or decodes electronic or other impulses which identify the numbers dialed or otherwise transmitted on the telephone line to which the device is attached, but the term does not include any device used by a provider or customer of a wire or electronic communication service for billing or recording as an incident to billing, for communication services provided by the provider, or any device used by a provider or customer of a wire communication service for cost accounting or other like purposes in the ordinary course of its business.

    (22)    'Trap and trace device' means a device which captures the incoming electronic or other impulses which identify the originating number of an instrument or a device from which a wire or electronic communication was transmitted.

    (23)    'State' means any state of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, or any other possession or territory of the United States.

    Section 17-30-20.    Except as otherwise specifically provided in this chapter, a person who commits any of the following acts is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be punished as provided in Section 17-30-50 of this chapter:

        (1)    intentionally intercepts, attempts to intercept, or procures any other person to intercept or attempt to intercept any wire, oral, or electronic communication;

        (2)    intentionally uses, attempts to use, or procures any other person to use or attempt to use any electronic, mechanical, or other device to intercept any oral communication when:

            (a)    the device is affixed to or otherwise transmits a signal through a wire, cable, or other like connection used in wire communication; or

            (b)    the device transmits communications by radio or interferes with the transmission of the communication;

        (3)    intentionally discloses or attempts to disclose to any other person the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication, knowing or having reason to know that the information was obtained through the interception of a wire, oral, or electronic communication in violation of this subsection;

        (4)    intentionally uses or attempts to use the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication, knowing or having reason to know that the information was obtained through the interception of a wire, oral, or electronic communication in violation of this subsection; or

        (5)    intentionally discloses or attempts to disclose to any other person the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication intercepted by means authorized by Section 17-30-70 or Section 17-30-95 when that person knows or has reason to know that the information was obtained through the interception of such a communication in connection with a criminal investigation and the disclosure is not otherwise authorized under this chapter.

    Section 17-30-25.    (A)    It is lawful under this chapter for an operator of a switchboard, or an officer, employee, or agent of a provider of wire or electronic communication service whose facilities are used in the transmission of a wire or electronic communication to intercept, disclose, or use that communication in the normal course of his employment while engaged in any activity which is a necessary incident to the rendition of his service or to the protection of the rights or property of the provider of that service, except that a provider of wire communication service to the public must not utilize service observing or random monitoring except for mechanical or service quality control checks.

    (B)    Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a provider of wire, oral, or electronic communication service, or an officer, employee, or agent thereof, or landlord, custodian, or other person may provide information, facilities, or technical assistance to a person authorized by law to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications if the provider, or an officer, employee, or agent thereof, or landlord, custodian, or other person, has been provided with:

        (1)    a court order directing such assistance signed by the authorizing judge; or

        (2)    a certification in writing by a person specified in Section 17-30-95 that no warrant or court order is required by law, that all statutory requirements have been met, and that the specified assistance is required, setting forth the period of time during which the provision of the information, facilities, or technical assistance is authorized and specifying the information, facilities, or technical assistance required.

    (C)    A provider of wire, oral, or electronic communication service, or an officer, employee, or agent thereof, or landlord, custodian, or other person must not disclose the existence of any interception or the device used to accomplish the interception with respect to which the person has been furnished an order under this chapter, except as may otherwise be required by legal process and then only after prior notice to the Attorney General or his Assistant Attorney General. Any such disclosure renders the person liable for the civil damages provided under Section 17-30-135, and the person may be prosecuted. An action shall not be brought against a provider of wire, oral, or electronic communication service, or an officer, employee, or agent thereof, or landlord, custodian, or other person for providing information, facilities, or assistance in accordance with the terms of a court order under this chapter.

    Section 17-30-30.    (A)    It is lawful under this chapter for an officer, employee, or agent of the Federal Communications Commission, in the normal course of his employment and in discharge of the monitoring responsibilities exercised by the commission in the enforcement of 47 U.S.C. Chapter 5, to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication transmitted by radio or to disclose or use the information thereby obtained.

    (B)    It is lawful under this chapter for a person acting under color of law to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication, where the person is a party to the communication or one of the parties to the communication has given prior consent to the interception.

    (C)    It is lawful under this chapter for a person not acting under color of law to intercept a wire, oral, or electronic communication where the person is a party to the communication or where one of the parties to the communication has given prior consent to the interception.

    Section 17-30-35.    (A)    It is lawful under this chapter for a person to:

        (1)    intercept or access an electronic communication made through an electronic communication system that is configured so that the electronic communication is readily accessible to the general public;

        (2)    intercept any radio communication which is transmitted by:

            (a)    any station for the use of the general public, or that relates to ships, aircraft, vehicles, or persons in distress;

            (b)    any governmental, law enforcement, civil defense, private land mobile, or public safety communications system, including any police or fire communications system, readily accessible to the general public;

            (c)    a station operating on an authorized frequency within the bands allocated to the amateur, citizens band, or general mobile radio services; or

            (d)    any marine or aeronautical communications system;

        (3)    engage in conduct which is:

            (a)    prohibited by Section 633 of the Communications Act of 1934; or

            (b)    excepted from the application of Section 705(a) of the Communications Act of 1934 and by Section 705(b) of that act;

        (4)    intercept any wire or electronic communication the transmission of which is causing harmful interference to any lawfully operating station of consumer electronic equipment to the extent necessary to identify the source of the interference;

        (5)    intercept, if the person is another user of the same frequency, any radio communication that is not scrambled or encrypted made through a system that utilizes frequencies monitored by individuals engaged in the provision or the use of the system;

        (6)    intercept a satellite transmission that is not scrambled or encrypted and that is transmitted:

            (a)    to a broadcasting station for purposes of retransmission to the general public; or

            (b)    as an audio subcarrier intended for redistribution to facilities open to the public, but not including data transmissions or telephone calls, when the interception is not for the purposes of direct or indirect commercial advantage or private financial gain; or

        (7)    intercept and privately view a private satellite video communication that is not scrambled or encrypted or to intercept a radio communication that is transmitted on frequencies allocated under Subpart D of Part 74 of the rules of the Federal Communications Commission that is not scrambled or encrypted, if the interception is not for an unlawful purpose or for purposes of direct or indirect commercial advantage or private commercial gain.

    (B)    It is lawful under this chapter for a provider of electronic communication service to record the fact that a wire or electronic communication was initiated or completed in order to protect the provider, another provider furnishing service toward the completion of the wire or electronic communication, or a user of that service, from fraudulent, unlawful, or abusive use of such service.

    Section 17-30-40.    (A)    Except as provided in subsection (B), a person or entity providing an electronic communication service to the public must not intentionally divulge the contents of any communication while in transmission on that service to any person or entity other than an addressee or intended recipient of the communication or an agent of the addressee or intended recipient.

    (B)    A person or entity providing electronic communication service to the public may divulge the contents of the communication:

        (1)    as otherwise authorized by this chapter;

        (2)    with the lawful consent of the originator or any addressee or intended recipient of the communication;

        (3)    to a person employed or authorized, or whose facilities are used to forward the communication to its destination; or

        (4)    which were inadvertently obtained by the service provider and which appeared to pertain to the commission of a crime, if the divulgence is made to a law enforcement agency.

    Section 17-30-45.    It is lawful under this chapter to use a pen register or a trap and trace device as authorized under South Carolina law or under federal law.

    Section 17-30-50.    (A)    Except as provided in subsection (B), whoever violates the provisions of Sections 17-30-20 through 17-30-45, upon conviction, must be imprisoned not more than five years or fined not more than five thousand dollars, or both.

    (B)    If the offense is a first offense under this chapter and is not for any unlawful purpose or for purposes of direct or indirect commercial advantage or private commercial gain, and the wire or electronic communication with respect to which the offense under this chapter was committed is a radio communication that is not scrambled, encrypted, or transmitted using modulation techniques the essential parameters of which have been withheld from the public with the intention of preserving the privacy of the communication, then:

        (1)    if the communication is not the radio portion of a cellular telephone communication, a cordless telephone communication that is transmitted between the cordless telephone handset and the base unit, a public land mobile radio service communication, or a paging service communication, and the conduct is not that described in Section 17-30-35(7), the person committing the offense is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, must be imprisoned not more than one year or fined not more than one thousand dollars, or both;

        (2)    if the communication is the radio portion of a cellular telephone communication, a cordless telephone communication that is transmitted between the cordless telephone handset and the base unit, a public land mobile radio service communication, or a paging service communication, the person committing the offense, upon conviction, is guilty of a misdemeanor, and must be fined not more than one thousand dollars for each violation.

    Section 17-30-55.    (A)    Except as otherwise specifically provided in this chapter, any person is guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, must be fined not more than five thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than five years, or both, who intentionally:

        (1)    sends through the mail or otherwise sends or carries any electronic, mechanical, or other device, knowing or having reason to know that the design of the device renders it primarily useful for the purpose of the unlawful interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications as specifically defined by this chapter; or

        (2)    manufactures, assembles, possesses, or sells any electronic, mechanical, or other device, knowing or having reason to know that the design of the device renders it primarily useful for the purpose of the unlawful interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications as specifically defined by this chapter.

    (B)    It is lawful under this section for the persons listed in items (1) and (2) of this subsection to send through the mail, send, or carry in intrastate, interstate, or foreign commerce or manufacture, assemble, possess, or sell any electronic, mechanical, or other device, knowing or having reason to know that the design of the device renders it primarily useful for the purpose of the surreptitious interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications.

    The persons to whom this subsection applies are:

        (1)    a provider of wire or electronic communication service or an officer, agent, or employee of, or a person under contract with, such a provider, in the normal course of the business of providing that wire or electronic communication service; or

        (2)    an officer, agent, or employee of, or a person under contract with, bidding upon contracts with, or in the course of doing business with, the United States, a state, or a political subdivision of the state, in the normal course of the activities of the United States, a state, or a political subdivision of the state.

    Section 17-30-60.    Any electronic, mechanical, or other device used, sent, carried, manufactured, assembled, possessed, or sold in violation of this chapter may be seized and forfeited to the State.

    Section 17-30-65.    (A)    Whenever any wire, oral, or electronic communication has been intercepted, no part of the contents of the communication and no evidence derived therefrom may be received in evidence in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding in or before any court, grand jury, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, legislative committee, or other authority of the State, or a political subdivision thereof, if the disclosure of that information would be in violation of this chapter. The prohibition of use as evidence provided in this section does not apply in cases of prosecution for criminal interception in violation of the provisions of this chapter.

    (B)    The contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication intercepted pursuant to this chapter and the contents of any application for an order and an order of authorization issued pursuant to this chapter are not included in the definition of a public record contained in Section 30-4-20(c), and may only be disclosed in a manner provided by this chapter.

    Section 17-30-70.    (A)    An application for an order authorizing or approving the interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications must be initiated by the Chief of SLED. After reviewing the application, the Attorney General or his designated Assistant Attorney General may authorize the submission of the application to a judge of competent jurisdiction for, and the judge may grant in conformity with this chapter, an order authorizing or approving the interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications by:

        (1)    the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division for the investigation of the offense as to which the application is made when the interception may provide or has provided evidence of the commission of the offenses of murder (Section 16-3-10); assault and battery with intent to kill (Section 16-3-620); kidnapping (Section 16-3-910); voluntary manslaughter (Section 16-3-50); armed robbery (Section 16-11-330(A)); attempted armed robbery (Section 16-11-330(B)); drug trafficking as defined in Sections 44-53-370(e) and 44-53-375(C); arson in the first degree (Section 16-11-110(A)); arson in the second degree (Section 16-11-110(B)); accessory before the fact to commit any of the above offenses (Section 16-1-40); or attempt to commit any of the above offenses (Section 16-1-80). This interception may also be authorized when it may provide or has provided evidence of any conspiracy or solicitation to commit any violation of the offenses specified in this subsection;

        (2)    the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division for the investigation of the offense as to which the application is made when the interception may provide or has provided evidence of the commission of any offense related to terrorism or the commission of a terrorist act, any offense related to bombs, destructive devices, bacteriological and biological weapons, and weapons of mass destruction as provided for in Article 7, Chapter 23, Title 16 or evidence of any conspiracy or solicitation to commit any crime specifically enumerated in this subsection; or

        (3)    an individual operating under a contract with the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division for the investigation of an offense listed in subsection (1) or (2). Any interception conducted under this chapter by persons authorized by this subsection must conduct the interception under the direct supervision of an agent or officer of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division.

    (B)    Any person authorized to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications pursuant to this section must have completed training provided by SLED pursuant to Section 17-30-145.

    Section 17-30-75.    (A)    Any SLED agent who, by any means authorized by this chapter, has obtained knowledge of the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication or evidence derived from it may disclose the contents to an attorney authorized by law to investigate and institute any action on behalf of the State of South Carolina or political subdivision of the State, or to another SLED agent, investigative, or law enforcement officer to the extent that the disclosure is appropriate to the proper performance of the official duties of the officer or person making or receiving the disclosure.

    (B)    Any SLED agent, investigative, or law enforcement officer who, by any means authorized by this chapter, has obtained knowledge of the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication or evidence derived from it may use the contents to the extent the use is appropriate to the proper performance of his official duties.

    (C)    Any person who has received, by any means authorized by this chapter, or by the laws of any other state or the United States, any information concerning a wire, oral, or electronic communication or evidence derived from it, intercepted in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, may disclose the contents of that communication or the derivative evidence while giving testimony under oath or affirmation in any criminal proceeding in any court of the State or of the United States or in any grand jury proceedings.

    (D)    No otherwise privileged wire, oral, or electronic communication intercepted in accordance with or in violation of the provisions of this chapter loses its privileged character.

    (E)    When a SLED agent, while engaged in intercepting wire, oral, or electronic communications in the manner authorized by this chapter, intercepts wire, oral, or electronic communications relating to offenses other than those specified in the order of authorization or approval, the contents thereof and evidence derived from it may be disclosed or used as provided in subsections (A) and (B). The contents and any evidence derived from it may be used under subsection (C) when authorized or approved by a judge of competent jurisdiction when the judge finds on subsequent application that the contents were otherwise intercepted in accordance with the provisions of this chapter. The application must be made as soon as practicable.

    Section 17-30-80.    (A)    Each application for an order authorizing or approving the interception of a wire, oral, or electronic communication under this chapter must be made in writing upon oath or affirmation to a judge of competent jurisdiction and must state the applicant's authority to make the application. Each application must include the following information:

        (1)    the identity of the SLED agent making the application and the person authorizing the application;

        (2)    a full and complete statement of the facts and circumstances relied upon by the applicant to justify his belief that an order should be issued, including:

            (a)    details as to the particular offense that has been, is being, or is about to be committed;

            (b)    except as otherwise provided, a particular description of the nature and location of the facilities from which or the place where the communications are to be intercepted;

            (c)    a particular description of the type of communications sought to be intercepted;

            (d)    the identity of the person, if known, committing the offense and whose communications are to be intercepted;

        (3)    a full and complete statement as to whether or not other investigative procedures have been tried and failed or why they reasonably appear to be unlikely to succeed if tried or to be too dangerous;

        (4)    a statement that the communications sought to be intercepted are not otherwise legally privileged;

        (5)    a statement of the period of time for which the interception is required to be maintained and, if the nature of the investigation is such that the authorization for interception should not automatically terminate when the described type of communication has been first obtained, a particular description of facts establishing probable cause to believe that additional communications of the same type will occur thereafter;

        (6)    a full and complete statement of the facts concerning all previous applications known to the individual authorizing and making the application, made to a judge for authorization to intercept, or for approval of interceptions of, wire, oral, or electronic communications involving any of the same persons, facilities, or places specified in the application, and the action taken by the judge on each of the applications; and

        (7)    when the application is for the extension of an order, a statement setting forth the results thus far obtained from the interception or a reasonable explanation of the failure to obtain the results.

    (B)    Allegations of fact in the application may be based either upon the personal knowledge of the applicant or upon information and belief. If the applicant personally knows the facts alleged, this knowledge must be stated in the application. If the facts stated in the application are derived in whole or in part from the statements of persons other than the applicant, the sources of these facts must be either disclosed or described, and the application must contain the facts establishing the existence and reliability of the informants or the reliability of the information supplied by them. The application must also state, so far as possible, the basis of the informant's knowledge or belief. Affidavits of persons other than the applicant may be submitted in conjunction with the application if they tend to support any fact or conclusion alleged in the application. An accompanying affidavit may be based either on the personal knowledge of the affiant, or information and belief with the source of the information and the reason for belief specified.

    (C)    The judge may require the applicant to furnish additional testimony or documentary evidence in support of the application. Any hearing ordered by the judge regarding the application must be tape recorded.

    (D)    Upon application, the judge may enter an ex parte order, as requested or as modified, authorizing or approving interception of wire, oral, or electronic communications within the territorial jurisdiction of the court in which the judge is sitting, and outside the jurisdiction but within the State of South Carolina in the case of a mobile interception device authorized by the judge within the jurisdiction, if the judge determines on the basis of the facts submitted by the applicant that:

        (1)    there is probable cause for belief that an individual is committing, has committed, or is about to commit an offense as provided in Section 17-30-70;

        (2)    there is probable cause for belief that particular communications concerning that offense will be obtained through the interception;

        (3)    normal investigative procedures have been tried and have failed or reasonably appear to be unlikely to succeed if tried or to be too dangerous; and

        (4)    except as otherwise provided, there is probable cause for belief that the facilities from which, or the place where, the wire, oral, or electronic communications are to be intercepted are being used, or are about to be used, in connection with the commission of the offense, or are leased to, listed in the name of, or commonly used by that person.

    Section 17-30-85.    Each order authorizing or approving the interception of any wire, oral, or electronic communication must specify:

        (1)    the identity of the person, if known, whose communications are to be intercepted;

        (2)    the nature and location of the communications facilities as to which, or the place where, authority to intercept is granted;

        (3)    a particular description of the type of communication sought to be intercepted and a statement of the particular offense to which it relates;

        (4)    the identity of the agency authorized to intercept the communications and of the person authorizing the application; and

        (5)    the period of time during which the interception is authorized, including a statement as to whether or not the interception automatically terminates when the described communication has been first obtained. An order authorizing the interception of a wire, oral, or electronic communication, upon the request of the applicant, must direct that a provider of wire or electronic communication service, landlord, custodian, or other person must furnish the applicant at once all information, facilities, and technical assistance necessary to accomplish the interception unobtrusively and with a minimum of interference with the services that the service provider, landlord, custodian, or person is according the person whose communications are to be intercepted. The obligation of a provider of wire, oral, or electronic communication service under such an order may include, but is not limited to, conducting an in-progress trace during an interception, or providing other assistance to support the investigation as may be specified in the order.

    Section 17-30-90.    (A)    No order entered may authorize or approve the interception of any wire, oral, or electronic communication for any period longer than is necessary to achieve the objective of the authorization or in any event longer than thirty days. The thirty-day period begins on the day on which the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division first begins to conduct an interception under the order or ten days after the order is entered, whichever occurs earlier. Extensions of an order may be granted but only upon application for an extension made in accordance with Section 17-30-80(A) and upon the court making the findings required by Section 17-30-80(C). The period of extension must be no longer than the authorizing judge determines necessary to achieve the purposes for which the extension was granted and in no event for longer than thirty days. Every order and extension of the order must contain a provision that the authorization to intercept must be executed as soon as practicable, must be conducted in such a way as to minimize the interception of communications not otherwise subject to interception under this chapter, and must terminate upon attainment of the authorized objective or in any event in thirty days. If the intercepted communication is in code or foreign language and an expert in that foreign language or code is not reasonably available during the interception period, minimization may be accomplished as soon as practicable after the interception. An interception under this chapter may be conducted by an agent of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division or by an individual operating under a contract with and under the direct supervision of an agent of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division.

    (B)    When an order authorizing interception is entered pursuant to this chapter, the order must require reports to be made to the judge who issued the order showing what progress has been made toward achievement of the authorized objective and the need for continued interception. The reports must be made at such intervals as the judge may require.

    (C)    Upon termination of the authorization in the warrant, all interception must cease and as soon as practicable after termination any device installed to accomplish interception must be removed or must be permanently deactivated by any means approved by the issuing judge.

    Section 17-30-95.    (A)    Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, any agent of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division specifically designated by the Attorney General or his designated Assistant Attorney General may intercept the wire, oral, or electronic communication if an application for an order approving the interception is made within forty-eight hours after the interception begins to occur, and the agent determines that more likely than not:

        (1)    an emergency exists that involves an offense provided for in Section 17-30-70 and an immediate danger of death or serious physical injury to any person or the danger of escape of a prisoner and requires that a wire, oral, or electronic communication be intercepted before an order authorizing the interception can, with due diligence, be obtained; and

        (2)    there are grounds upon which an order could be entered under this chapter to authorize the interception.

    (B)    In the absence of an order, the interception must immediately terminate when the communication sought is obtained or when the application for the order is denied, whichever is earlier. If the application for approval is denied, or in any other case in which the interception is terminated without an order having been issued, the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication intercepted must be treated as having been obtained in violation of Section 17-30-20, and an inventory must be served as provided for in Section 17-30-100(E) on the person named in the application.

    (C)    Agents of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division designated to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications pursuant to this section must have completed training provided by SLED pursuant to Section 17-30-145.

    (D)    A judge of competent jurisdiction must be notified orally of the intent to begin the interception of any wire, oral, or electronic communication when an emergency exists pursuant to the provisions of this section before any interception is conducted. The judge must make a written record of this notification.

    Section 17-30-100.    (A)    The contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication intercepted by any means authorized by this chapter, if possible, must be recorded on tape or wire or other comparable device. The recording of the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication under this subsection must be kept in such a way as will protect the recording from editing or other alterations. Immediately upon the expiration of the period of the order, or extensions of the order, the recordings must be made available to the judge issuing the order and sealed under his directions. Custody of the recordings must be wherever the judge orders. They must not be destroyed except upon an order of the issuing or denying judge, or that judge's successor in office, and in any event must be kept for ten years. Duplicate recordings may be made for use or disclosure as permitted by this chapter.

    (B)    The presence of the seal provided for by this section, or a satisfactory explanation for the absence thereof, must be a prerequisite for the use or disclosure of the contents of any wire, oral, or electronic communication or evidence derived therefrom as required by federal law.

    (C)    Applications made and orders granted under this chapter must be sealed by the judge. Custody of the applications and orders must be wherever the judge directs. As required by federal law, the applications and orders must be disclosed only upon a showing of good cause before a judge of competent jurisdiction and must not be destroyed except on order of the issuing or denying judge, or that judge's successor in office, and in any event must be kept for ten years.

    (D)    A violation of the provisions of this section may be punished as contempt of the issuing or denying judge.

    (E)    Within a reasonable time but not later than ninety days after the termination of the period of an order or extensions of the order, the issuing or denying judge must cause to be served on the persons named in the order or the application, and those other parties to intercepted communications as the judge may determine in his discretion to be in the interest of justice, an inventory which must include notice of the:

        (1)    fact of the entry of the order or the application;

        (2)    date of the entry and the period of authorized, approved, or disapproved interception, or the denial of the application; and

        (3)    the fact that during the period wire, oral, or electronic communications were or were not intercepted.

    The judge, upon the filing of a motion, must make available to the person or the person's counsel for inspection the portions of the intercepted communications, applications, testimony, recordings, and orders that would otherwise be discoverable under the South Carolina Rules of Evidence, unless otherwise provided by federal law or Rules of Court. On an ex parte showing of good cause to a judge of competent jurisdiction, the serving of the inventory required by this paragraph may be postponed.

    Section 17-30-105.    As required by federal law, the contents of any intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication or evidence derived therefrom must not be received in evidence or otherwise disclosed in any trial, hearing, or other proceeding unless each party, not less than ten days before the hearing or proceeding and not less than thirty days prior to trial, has been furnished with a copy of the court order and accompanying application under which the interception was authorized or approved. These time periods may be waived by the judge if the judge finds that it was not possible to furnish the party with the above information within the specified time periods before the trial, hearing, or proceeding and that the party will not be prejudiced by the delay in receiving the information. In determining prejudice, the judge must specifically consider the complexity of the case, the duration of the recordings, and the party's need to retain experts to review the material and must also take these factors into consideration when deciding a motion for continuance made by a party furnished with these materials after the time periods set out above. Upon filing of a motion by an aggrieved person, the judge must make available to the aggrieved person or his counsel for inspection the portions of the intercepted communication or evidence derived therefrom that would be otherwise discoverable under South Carolina law.

    Section 17-30-110.    (A)    Prior to any trial, hearing, or proceeding in or before any court, department, officer, agency, regulatory body, or other authority, any aggrieved person may move to suppress the contents of any intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication, or evidence derived therefrom, on the grounds that the:

    (1)    communication was unlawfully intercepted;

    (2)    order of authorization or approval under which it was intercepted is insufficient on its face; or

    (3)    interception was not made in conformity with the order of authorization or approval.

    The motion must be made before the trial, hearing, or proceeding unless there was no opportunity to make the motion or the person was not aware of the grounds of the motion. The motion must be made before the reviewing authority and must be decided on an expedited basis. Upon receiving the motion, the reviewing authority must notify the issuing judge who must transfer copies of the contents of all recordings, applications, orders, and other documents relating to the issuance of the order of authorization. Disclosure of the contents of these materials must only be to the extent necessary to effectively render a decision or to the extent authorized by this chapter. The issuing judge also must designate the portions of these materials that were made available to the aggrieved person. After reviewing the materials, the reviewing authority must first determine whether all materials otherwise discoverable under South Carolina law were made available to the aggrieved person. If a majority of the members of the reviewing authority determines that not all of the necessary materials were made available, the reviewing authority may order that those additional portions be made available and allow the aggrieved person appropriate time to review the materials. The aggrieved person may then amend his motion to include any additional grounds derived from the additional materials. If a majority of the members of the reviewing authority determine that all necessary materials were made available, the reviewing authority must decide whether the order of authorization was issued and the communications were intercepted in conformity with the requirements of this chapter. If the reviewing authority does not unanimously determine that the order of authorization was issued and the communications were intercepted in conformity with the requirements of this chapter, the contents of the intercepted wire or oral communication or evidence derived therefrom must be treated as having been obtained in violation of this chapter. Unless otherwise provided by federal law or Rules of Court, all South Carolina Rules of Evidence apply. The reviewing authority may, in its discretion, conduct a hearing and require additional testimony or documentary evidence. All proceedings requiring the use of the contents of any intercepted communication that are the subject of the motion to suppress pursuant to this section are automatically stayed pending the determination of the motion to suppress.

    (B)    The State has the right to appeal an order granting a motion to suppress made under subsection (A). The judges of the South Carolina Court of Appeals en banc have initial appellate jurisdiction over the appeal. All other appellate procedures remain in force and effect.

    (C)    The State has the right to appeal the denial of the application of an order of authorization or approval. The appeal must be directed to the reviewing authority and must be conducted in a manner consistent with subsection (A). In addition to the requirements of subsection (A), the reviewing authority must unanimously determine that the issuing judge abused his discretion in denying an application for an order of approval before the decision of the issuing judge may be overturned. Upon a determination of an abuse of discretion, the reviewing authority must order that the application of authorization or approval be granted and an order of authorization or approval be issued. The State has no further right to appeal the decision of the reviewing authority. For purposes of the aggrieved person, an order granted pursuant to this subsection is considered interlocutory. The appeal must be taken within thirty days after the date the order was entered and must be diligently prosecuted.

    (D)    The remedies and sanctions described in this chapter with respect to the interception of electronic communications are the only judicial remedies and sanctions for violations of those sections involving the communications.

    Section 17-30-115.    The requirements relating to the specification of the facilities from which, or the place where, the communication is to be intercepted do not apply if:

    (1)    in the case of an application with respect to the interception of an oral communication the:

        (a)    application is initiated by the Chief of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division (SLED) and is approved by the Attorney General or his designated Assistant Attorney General.

        (b)    application contains a full and complete statement as to why the specification is not practical and identifies the person committing the offense and whose communications are to be intercepted; and

        (c)    judge finds that the specification is not practical; and

    (2)    in the case of an application with respect to a wire or electronic communication the:

        (a)    application is initiated by the Chief of SLED and is approved by the Attorney General or his designated Assistant Attorney General;

        (b)    application identifies the person believed to be committing the offense and whose communications are to be intercepted and the applicant makes a showing that there is probable cause to believe that the person's actions could have the effect of thwarting interception from a specified facility;

        (c)    judge finds that such showing has been adequately made; and

        (d)    order authorizing or approving the interception is limited to interception only for such time as it is reasonable to presume that the person identified in the application is or was reasonably proximate to the instrument through which the communication will be or was transmitted.

    Section 17-30-120.    If an interception of a communication is to be carried out pursuant to Section 17-30-115, the interception may not begin until the facilities from which, or the place where, the communication is to be intercepted is ascertained by the person implementing the interception order. A provider of wire or electronic communications service that has received an order as provided under Section 17-30-115 may petition the court to modify or quash the order on the ground that the interception cannot be performed in a timely or reasonable fashion. The court, upon notice to the State, must decide such a petition expeditiously.

    Section 17-30-125.    (A)    The supervising agent of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division or the supervising law enforcement officer of a political subdivision of this State at the scene of an incident where there is reasonable cause to believe:

        (1)    involves immediate danger of death or serious physical injury to any person or the danger of escape of a prisoner;

        (2)    that a person is holding one or more hostages;

        (3)    that there is the probability that a subject about to be arrested will resist with the use of weapons; or

        (4)    that a person has barricaded himself and is armed and is threatening suicide;

    may order law enforcement or telephone company personnel to cut, reroute, or divert telephone lines solely for the purpose of preventing telephone communications between the suspect and any person other than a law enforcement officer or the law enforcement officer's designee, if the cutting, rerouting, or diverting of telephone lines is technically feasible and can be performed without endangering the lives of telephone company or other utility personnel.

    (B)    The good faith reliance by a telephone company on an oral or written order to cut, reroute, divert, or intercept telephone lines given by a supervising law enforcement officer under subsection (A) constitutes a complete defense to any civil, criminal, or administrative action arising out of the order.

    Section 17-30-130.    Any intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communication must be reported to the Administrative Office of the United States Courts as outlined in 18 U.S.C. Section 2519.

    Section 17-30-135.    (A)    Any person whose wire, oral, or electronic communication is intercepted, disclosed, or used in violation of this chapter has a civil cause of action against any person or entity who intercepts, discloses, or uses, or procures any other person or entity to intercept, disclose, or use the communications and is entitled to recover from the person or entity which engaged in that violation relief as may be appropriate, including:

        (1)    preliminary or equitable or declaratory relief as may be appropriate;

        (2)    actual damages, but not less than liquidated damages computed at the rate of five hundred dollars a day for each day of violation or twenty-five thousand dollars, whichever is greater, not to exceed the limits on liability provided in subsection (F)(3);

        (3)    punitive damages, except as may be prohibited in subsection (F)(4); and

        (4)    a reasonable attorney's fee and other litigation costs reasonably incurred.

    (B)    A good faith reliance on a court order, subpoena, or a request of an agent of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division under Section 17-30-95 constitutes a complete defense to any civil, criminal, or administrative action, other than an action for preliminary or equitable or declaratory relief.

    (C)    A civil action under this section may not be commenced later than five years after the date upon which the claimant first has a reasonable opportunity to discover the violation, except as provided in subsection (F)(2).

    (D)    Any person whose wire, oral, or electronic communication is intercepted, disclosed, or used in violation of this chapter is entitled to a jury trial.

    (E)    An investigative or law enforcement officer or governmental entity who wilfully discloses or wilfully uses information beyond the extent permitted by law is in violation of this chapter and subject to a civil cause of action and criminal penalties as provided in this chapter.

    (F)(1)    Any civil cause of action for damages authorized in subsection (A) and brought against the State, an agency, a political subdivision, or a governmental entity and its employee acting within the scope of his official duty must be brought pursuant to the South Carolina Tort Claims Act, Chapter 78, Title 15. For purposes of the Tort Claims Act, an action authorized in subsection (A) and brought against the State, an agency, a political subdivision, or a governmental entity and its employee acting within the scope of his official duty is a tort within the meaning of the Act.

        (2)    In any action authorized in subsection (A) and brought against the State, an agency, a political subdivision, or a governmental entity and its employee acting within the scope of his official duty, the provisions in the Tort Claims Act regarding the statute of limitations provided in Section 15-78-110 shall apply in lieu of subsection (C) of this section;

        (3)    In any action authorized in subsection (A) and brought against the State, an agency, a political subdivision, or a governmental entity and its employee acting within the scope of his official duty, the provisions in the Tort Claims Act regarding the limits on liability for damages as provided in Section 15-78-120(a) shall apply to all awards of damages under item (2) of subsection (A) of this section; and

        (4)    In any action authorized in subsection (A) and brought against the State, an agency, a political subdivision, or a governmental entity and its employee acting within the scope of his official duty, the provisions in the Tort Claims Act prohibiting the award of punitive damages as provided in Section 15-78-120(B) shall apply in lieu of item (3) of subsection (A) of this section.

        (5)    For purposes of this subsection, the terms 'State,' 'agency,' 'political subdivision,' 'governmental entity,' 'employee,' and 'scope of his official duty' have the same meanings as provided in the Tort Claims Act.

    Section 17-30-140.    (A)    The Attorney General or any solicitor may make application to a judge of competent jurisdiction for an order authorizing or approving the installation and use of a mobile tracking device by the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division or any law enforcement entity of a political subdivision of this State.

    (B)    An application under subsection (A) of this section must include:

        (1)    a statement of the identity of the applicant;

        (2)    a certification by the applicant that probable cause exists to believe that the information likely to be obtained is relevant to an ongoing criminal investigation being conducted by the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division or any law enforcement entity of a political subdivision of this State which may provide evidence relating to any offense or any evidence of any conspiracy or solicitation to commit any violation of the laws of this State;

        (3)    a statement of the offense to which the information likely to be obtained relates; and

        (4)    a statement whether it may be necessary to use and monitor the mobile tracking device outside the jurisdiction of the court from which the authorization is being sought.

    (C)    Upon application made as provided under subsection (B), the court, upon a finding that the certification and statements required by subsection (B) have been made in the application and probable cause exists, must enter an ex parte order authorizing the installation and use of a mobile tracking device. The order may authorize the use of the device within the jurisdiction of the court and outside that jurisdiction but within the State of South Carolina if the device is installed within the jurisdiction of the court.

    (D)    A court may require greater specificity or additional information beyond that which is required by this section as a requisite for issuing an order.

    (E)    The standards established by the United States Supreme Court for the installation and monitoring of mobile tracking devices apply to the installation and use of any device as authorized by this section.

    (F)    As used in this section, a 'tracking device' means an electronic or mechanical device which permits the tracking of the movement of a person or object.

    Section 17-30-145.     Any SLED agent or an individual operating under a contract with the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division authorized under the provisions of this chapter to intercept wire, oral, or electronic communications must undergo training by SLED in conducting such surveillance with emphasis on techniques for minimizing the interception of communications that fall outside of the communications subject to interception pursuant to the provisions of this chapter."

SECTION    15.    Section 25-1-420 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 25-1-420.    There is established within the office of the Adjutant General the South Carolina Preparedness Division (Division) (division).

    The Division division shall must be administered by a director appointed by the Adjutant General, to serve at his pleasure, and such additional staff as may be employed or appointed by the Adjutant General.

    The Division division shall be is responsible for the implementation of the following:

    (a)    Coordinating coordinating the efforts of all state, county, and municipal agencies and departments in developing a State Emergency Plan.;

    (b)    Conducting conducting a statewide preparedness program to assure the capability of state, county, and municipal governments to execute the State Emergency Plan.;

    (c)    Establishing establishing and maintaining a State Emergency Operations Center and providing support of the state emergency staff and work force.;

    (d)    Establishing establishing an effective system for reporting, analyzing, displaying, and disseminating emergency information.; and

    (e)    establishing a statewide Urban Search and Recovery Team for response to emergency situations, to the extent that funding is provided by the General Assembly."

SECTION    16.    Section 25-1-440 off the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 25-1-440.    (a)    The Governor, when an emergency has been declared, as the elected Chief Executive of the State, shall be is responsible for the safety, security and welfare of the State and shall be is empowered with the following additional authority to adequately discharge this responsibility:

        (1)    Issue issue emergency proclamations and regulations and amend or rescind them. Such These proclamations and regulations shall have the force and effect of law as long as the emergency exists.;

        (2)    Declare declare a state of emergency for all or part of the State if he finds a disaster or a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130, has occurred, or that the threat thereof is imminent, and extraordinary measures are deemed considered necessary to cope with the existing or anticipated situation. A declared state of emergency shall not continue for a period of more than fifteen days without the consent of the General Assembly.;

        (3)    Suspend suspend provisions of existing regulations prescribing procedures for conduct of state business if strict compliance with the provisions thereof would in any way prevent, hinder, or delay necessary action in coping with the emergency.;

        (4)    Utilize utilize all available resources of state government as reasonably necessary to cope with the emergency.;

        (5)    Transfer transfer the direction, personnel, or functions of state departments, agencies and commissions, or units thereof, for purposes of facilitating or performing emergency services as necessary or desirable.;

        (6) Compel compel performance by elected and appointed state, county, and municipal officials and employees of the emergency duties and functions assigned them in the State Emergency Plan or by Executive Order.;

        (7)    Direct direct and compel evacuation of all or part of the populace from any stricken or threatened area if this action is deemed considered necessary for the preservation of life or other emergency mitigation, response, or recovery; to prescribe routes, modes of transportation and destination in connection with evacuation; and to control ingress and egress at an emergency area, the movement of persons within the area, and the occupancy of premises therein.;

        (8)    Within within the limits of any applicable constitutional requirements and when a major disaster or emergency has been declared by the President to exist in this State:

            (i)     Request request and accept a grant by the federal government to fund financial assistance to individuals and families adversely affected by a major disaster, subject to terms and conditions as may be imposed upon the grant but only upon his determination that the financial assistance is essential to meet disaster-related expenses or serious needs that may not be otherwise met otherwise from other means of assistance.;

            (ii)    Enter enter into an agreement with the federal government, through an officer or agency thereof, pledging the State to participate in the funding of the financial assistance authorized in subitem (i) of this item, under a ratio not to exceed twenty-five percent of the assistance.;

            (iii)    Make make financial grants to meet disaster related necessary expenses or serious needs of individuals or families adversely affected by a major disaster which may not otherwise be adequately met from other means of assistance. No individual or family may receive grants aggregating more than ten thousand dollars with respect to any single major disaster subject to the limitations contained in subitem (ii) of this item. The ten thousand dollar limit must annually be adjusted to reflect changes in the Consumer Price Index for All Urban Consumers published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics of the United States Department of Labor.; and

            (iv)    Promulgate promulgate necessary regulations for carrying out the purposes of this item.

    (b)    The Governor shall be is responsible for the development and coordination of a system of Comprehensive Emergency Management which shall must include provisions for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery in anticipated and actual emergency situations.

    (c)(1)    Any person who fraudulently or wilfully makes a misstatement of fact in connection with an application for financial assistance made available pursuant to item (8) of subsubsection (a) of this subsection, upon conviction of each offense, must be fined not more than five thousand dollars or imprisoned for not more than one year, or both.

        (2)    Any person who knowingly violates any regulation promulgated pursuant to item (8) of subsection (a) of this subsection is subject to a civil penalty of not more than two thousand dollars for each violation.

        (3)    A grant recipient who misapplies financial assistance made available by item (8) of subsubsection (a) of this subsection is subject to a civil penalty in an amount equal to one hundred fifty percent of the original grant amount.

    (d)(1)    The Governor must appoint the Public Health Emergency Plan Committee, consisting of representatives of all state agencies relevant to public health emergency preparedness, and, in addition, a licensed physician from the private sector specializing in infectious diseases, a hospital infection control practitioner, a medical examiner, a coroner from an urban county or the coroner's designee, a member of the judiciary, and other members as may be considered appropriate.

        (2)    Prior to the declaration of a public health emergency, the Governor must consult with the Public Health Planning Committee, and may consult with any public health agency and other experts as necessary. Nothing herein shall be construed to limit the Governor's authority to act without such consultation when the situation calls for prompt and timely action.

    (e)    The state of public health emergency must be declared by an executive order that indicates the nature of the public health emergency, the areas that are or may be threatened, and the conditions that have brought about the public health emergency. In addition to the powers and duties provided in this article and in Article 7, Chapter 3, Title 1, the declaration of a state of public health emergency authorizes implementation of the provisions of Chapter 4, Title 44, the Emergency Health Powers Act. The declaration authorizes the deployment and use of any resources and personnel, including, but not limited to, local officers and employees qualified as first responders, to which the plans apply and the use or distribution of any supplies, equipment, and materials and facilities assembled, stockpiled, or arranged to be made available pursuant to this act."

SECTION    17.    Section 30-4-20(c) is amended by adding a new sentence at the end of the subitem to read:

    "Information relating to security plans and devices proposed, adopted, installed, or utilized by a public body, other than amounts expended for adoption, implementation, or installation of these plans and devices, is required to be closed to the public and is not considered to be made open to the public under the provisions of this act."

SECTION    18.    Section 30-4-40(a)(3) of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

        "(3)    Records of law enforcement and public safety agencies not otherwise available by state and federal law that were compiled in the process of detecting and investigating crime if the disclosure of the information would harm the agency by:

            (A)    Disclosing disclosing identity of informants not otherwise known;

            (B)    The the premature release of information to be used in a prospective law enforcement action;

            (C)    Disclosing disclosing investigatory techniques not otherwise known outside the government;

            (D)    By by endangering the life, health, or property of any person; or

            (E)    disclosing any contents of intercepted wire, oral, or electronic communications not otherwise disclosed during a trial."

SECTION    19.    Section 30-4-40(a) of the 1976 Code is amended by adding an appropriately numbered item to read:

    "( )    Structural bridge plans or designs unless: (a) the release is necessary for procurement purposes; or (b) the plans or designs are the subject of a negligence action, an action set forth in Section 15-3-530, or an action brought pursuant to Chapter 78 of Title 15, and the request is made pursuant to a judicial order."

SECTION    20.    Section 33-56-120 of the 1976 Code, as last amended by Act 336 of 2000, is further amended by adding:

    "(G)     A person shall not knowingly or wilfully use a misleading practice or device to solicit the contribution or sale of goods or services for a charitable purpose in connection with a declared state of emergency or disaster as described in Section 39-5-147. Penalties provided in this chapter are cumulative of and in addition to those provided in Section 39-5-147."

SECTION    21.    Article 1, Chapter 5, Title 39 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 39-5-145.    (A)    As used in this section:

        (1)    'Commodity' means goods, services, materials, merchandise, supplies, equipment, resources, or other articles of commerce, and includes, without limitation, food, water, ice, chemicals, petroleum products, and lumber essential for consumption or use as a direct result of a declared state of emergency.

        (2)(a)    'Unconscionable price' means an amount charged, which:

                (i)        represents a gross disparity between the price of the commodity or rental or lease of a dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility that is the subject of the offer or transaction and the average price at which that commodity or dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility was rented, leased, sold, or offered for rent or sale in the usual course of business during the thirty days immediately before a declaration of a state of emergency, and the increase in the amount charged is not attributable to additional costs incurred in connection with the rental or sale of the commodity or rental or lease of the dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility, or regional, national, or international market trends; or

                (ii)    grossly exceeds the average price at which the same or similar commodity, dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility was readily obtainable in the trade area during the thirty days immediately before a declaration of a state of emergency, and the increase in the amount charged is not attributable to additional costs incurred in connection with the rental or sale of the commodity or rental or lease of the dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility, or regional, national, or international market trends.

            (b)    It is prima facie evidence that a price is unconscionable if it meets the definition of item (i) or (ii).

    (B)(1)    Upon a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor, it is unlawful and a violation of this article for a person or his agent or employee to:

            (a)    rent or sell or offer to rent or sell a commodity at an unconscionable price within the area for which the state of emergency is declared; or

            (b)    impose unconscionable prices for the rental or lease of a dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility within the area for which the state of emergency is declared.

        (2)    This prohibition remains in effect until the declaration expires or is terminated.

    (C)(1)    Upon a declaration of a state of disaster by the President, in which the disaster area includes all or a portion of the State of South Carolina, it is unlawful and a violation of this article for a person or his agent or employee in this State to:

            (a)    rent or sell or offer to rent or sell a commodity at an unconscionable price within the area for which the state of disaster is declared; or

            (b)    impose unconscionable prices for the rental or lease of a dwelling unit, including a motel or hotel unit or other temporary lodging, or self-storage facility within the area for which the state of disaster is declared.

        (2)    This prohibition remains in effect until the declaration expires or is terminated.

    (D)    A price increase approved by an appropriate government agency is not a violation of this section.

    (E)    This section does not apply to sales by growers, producers, or processors of raw or processed food products, except for retail sales of those products to the ultimate consumer within the area of the declared state of emergency or disaster.

    (F)    This section does not preempt the powers of local government, except that the evidentiary standards contained in this section are the sole evidentiary standards to be adopted by ordinance of a local government to restrict price gouging during a declared state of emergency or disaster. In the event a local government declares a state of emergency or disaster in which the disaster area includes all or a portion of the area under the local government's jurisdiction, and restricts price gouging during that emergency or disaster, the governmental entity must notify the Governor's Office of such declaration. The Governor's Office must notify registered agents simultaneously at the time of the declaration and also at the termination of the state of emergency.

    (G)    In addition to all other remedies provided in this article, a person who wilfully and knowingly violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, must be punished by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than thirty days.

    (H)    Any person who is charged with committing an action in violation of this section may present evidence relating to, but not limited to, his knowledge or intent when committing such action in order to rebut any presumption or evidence of violation of this section.

    Section 39-5-147.    (A)    Upon a declaration of a state of emergency by the Governor, it is unlawful and a violation of this article for a person or his agent or employee to solicit the contribution or sale of goods or services for charitable purposes by any manner, means, practice, or device that is knowingly and wilfully misleading.

    (B)    Upon a declaration of a state of disaster by the President, in which the disaster areas includes all or a portion of the State of South Carolina, it is unlawful and a violation of this article for a person or his agent or employee to solicit in this State the contribution or sale of goods or services for charitable purposes by any manner, means, practice, or device that is knowingly and wilfully misleading.

    (C)    These prohibitions remain in effect until the declaration of emergency or disaster expires or is terminated.

    (D)    In addition to all other remedies provided in this article, a person who wilfully violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, must be fined not more than one thousand dollars or imprisoned not more than thirty days.

    Section 39-5-149.    A trade association, corporation, or partnership may register an agent for the purposes of being notified when the Governor declares and terminates a state of emergency. A trade association may designate up to three persons to be notified on behalf of the organization's members. The trade association, corporation, or partnership is responsible for maintaining current information for the designated agent or agents. The Governor's Office is responsible for notifying the registered agents simultaneous to the declaration and termination of the state of emergency."

SECTION    22.    Section 44-1-80 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 44-1-80.     (A)    The Board of Health and Environmental Control or its designated agents shall must investigate the reported causes of communicable or epidemic disease and shall must enforce or prescribe such these preventive measures as may be needed to suppress or prevent the spread of such these diseases by proper quarantine or other measures of prevention, as may be necessary to protect the citizens of the State. The Board of Health and Environmental Control or its designated agents shall declare, when the facts justify it, any place to be as infected and, in case of hydrophobia or other diseases transmitted from animals to man, shall must declare such animal or animals quarantined, and shall must place all such restrictions upon ingress and egress of persons or animals therefrom as may be, in its judgment, necessary to prevent the spread of disease from the infected locality.

    (B)(1)    Whenever the board learns of a case of a reportable illness or health condition, an unusual cluster, or a suspicious event that it reasonably believes has the potential to cause a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130, it is authorized to notify the appropriate public safety authority, tribal authorities, and federal health and public safety authorities.

        (2)    The sharing of information on reportable illnesses, health conditions, unusual clusters, or suspicious events between authorized personnel must be restricted to information necessary for the treatment, control, investigation, and prevention of a public health emergency. Restriction of access to this information to those authorized personnel for the protection of public health ensures compliance with all state and federal health information privacy laws.

        (3)    The board and its agents must have full access to medical records and non-medical records when necessary to investigate the causes, character, and means of preventing the spread of a qualifying health event or public health emergency. For purposes of this item, 'non-medical records' mean records of entities, including businesses, health facilities, and pharmacies, which are needed to adequately identify and locate persons believed to have been potentially exposed or known to have been infected with a contagious disease.

        (4)    An order of the board given to effectuate the purposes of this subsection is enforceable immediately by the public safety authority.

        (5)    For purposes of this subsection, the terms qualifying health event, public health emergency, and public safety authority have the same meanings as provided in Section 44-4-130."

SECTION    23.    Section 44-1-100 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 44-1-100.    All sheriffs and constables in the several counties of this State and police officers and health officers of cities and towns shall must aid and assist the Director of the Department of Health and Environmental Control and shall must carry out and obey his orders, or those of the Department of Health and Environmental Control, to enforce and carry out any and all restrictive measures and quarantine regulations that may be prescribed. During a state of public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130, the director may request assistance in enforcing orders issued pursuant to this chapter and pursuant to Chapter 4, Title 44, from the public safety authority, as defined in Section 44-4-130, other state law enforcement authorities, and local law enforcement. The public safety authority may request assistance from the South Carolina National Guard in enforcing orders made pursuant to this chapter or pursuant to Chapter 4, Title 44."

SECTION    24.    Title 44 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Article 1

    General Provisions

    Section 44-4-100.    This act may be cited as the 'Emergency Health Powers Act.'

    Section 44-4-110.    The General Assembly finds that:

    (1)    the government must do more to protect the health, safety, and general well being of our citizens;

    (2)    new and emerging dangers, including emergent and resurgent infectious diseases and incidents of civilian mass casualties, pose serious and immediate threats;

    (3)    a renewed focus on the prevention, detection, management, and containment of public health emergencies is called for;

    (4)    emergency health threats, including those caused by chemical terrorism, radiological terrorism, bioterrorism, and epidemics, require the exercise of extraordinary government functions. Chemical terrorism and bioterrorism pose especial threats to the food supply of the State;

    (5)    this State must have the ability to respond, rapidly and effectively, to potential or actual public health emergencies;

    (6)    the exercise of emergency health powers must promote the common good;

    (7)    emergency health powers must be grounded in a thorough scientific understanding of public health threats and disease transmission;

    (8)    guided by principles of justice, it is the duty of this State to act with fairness and tolerance toward individuals and groups;

    (9)    the rights of people to liberty, bodily integrity, and privacy must be respected to the fullest extent possible consistent with the overriding importance of the public's health and security; and

    (10)    this act is necessary to protect the health and safety of the citizens of this State.

    Section 44-4-120.    The purposes of this act are:

    (1)    to authorize the collection of data and records, the control of property, the management of persons, and access to communications as may be strictly necessary to accomplish the purposes of this act;

    (2)    to facilitate the early detection of a qualifying health event or public health emergency, and allow for immediate investigation of such an emergency by granting access to individuals' health information under specified circumstances;

    (3)    to grant state officials the authority to use and appropriate property as necessary for the care, treatment, and housing of patients, and for the destruction or decontamination of contaminated materials;

    (4)    to grant state officials the authority to provide care and treatment to persons who are ill or who have been exposed to infection, and to separate affected individuals from the population at large for the purpose of interrupting the transmission of infectious disease;

    (5)    to ensure that the needs of infected or exposed persons will be addressed to the fullest extent possible, given the primary goal of controlling serious health threats;

    (6)    to provide state officials with the ability to prevent, detect, manage, and contain emergency health threats without unduly interfering with civil rights and liberties; and

    (7)    to require the development of a comprehensive plan to provide for a coordinated, appropriate response in the event of a public health emergency.

    Section 44-4-130.    As used in the chapter:

    (A)    'Biological agent' means a microorganism, virus, infectious substance, naturally occurring or bioengineered product, or other biological material that could cause death, disease, or other harm to a human, animal, a plant, or another living organism.

    (B)    'Bioterrorism' means the intentional use or threatened use of a biological agent to harm or endanger members of the public.

    (C)    'Chemical agent' means a poisonous chemical agent that has the capacity to cause death, disease, or other harm to a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism.

    (D)    'Chemical terrorism' means the intentional use or threatened use of a chemical agent to harm or endanger members of the public.

    (E)    'Chain of custody' means the methodology of tracking specimens for the purpose of maintaining control and accountability from initial collection to final disposition of the specimens and providing for accountability at each stage of collecting, handling, testing, storing, and transporting the specimens and reporting test results.

    (F)    'Commissioner' means the Commissioner of the Department of Health and Environmental Control.

    (G)    'Contagious disease' is an infectious disease that can be transmitted from person to person, animal to person, or insect to person.

    (H)    'Coroners, medical examiners, and funeral directors' have the same meanings as provided in Sections 17-5-5 and 40-19-10, respectively.

    (I)    'DHEC' means the Department of Health and Environmental Control or any person authorized to act on behalf of the Department of Health and Environmental Control.

    (J)    'Facility' means any real property, building, structure, or other improvement to real property or any motor vehicle, rolling stock, aircraft, watercraft, or other means of transportation.

    (K)    'Health care facility' means any non-federal institution, building, or agency or portion thereof, whether public or private (for-profit or nonprofit) that is used, operated, or designed to provide health services, medical treatment, or nursing, rehabilitative, or preventive care to any person or persons. This includes, but is not limited to, ambulatory surgical facilities, health maintenance organizations, home health agencies, hospices, hospitals, infirmaries, intermediate care facilities, kidney treatment centers, long-term care facilities, medical assistance facilities, mental health centers, outpatient facilities, public health centers, rehabilitation facilities, residential treatment facilities, skilled nursing facilities, and adult day-care centers. The term also includes, but is not limited to, the following related property when used for or in connection with the foregoing: laboratories, research facilities, pharmacies, laundry facilities, health personnel training and lodging facilities, and patient, guest, and health personnel food service facilities, and offices and office buildings for persons engaged in health care professions or services.

    (L)    'Health care provider' means any person or entity who provides health care services including, but not limited to, hospitals, medical clinics and offices, special care facilities, medical laboratories, physicians, pharmacists, dentists, physician assistants, nurse practitioners, registered and other nurses, paramedics, firefighters who provide emergency medical care, emergency medical or laboratory technicians, and ambulance and emergency medical workers. This includes out-of-state medical laboratories, provided that such laboratories have agreed to the reporting requirements of South Carolina. Results must be reported by the laboratory that performs the test, but an in-state laboratory that sends specimens to an out-of-state laboratory is also responsible for reporting results.

    (M)    'Infectious disease' is a disease caused by a living organism or virus. An infectious disease may, or may not, be transmissible from person to person, animal to person, or insect to person.

    (N)    'Isolation' and 'quarantine' mean the compulsory physical separation (including the restriction of movement or confinement) of individuals and/or groups believed to have been exposed to or known to have been infected with a contagious disease from individuals who are believed not to have been exposed or infected, in order to prevent or limit the transmission of the disease to others; if the context so requires, 'quarantine' means compulsory physical separation, including restriction of movement, of populations or groups of healthy people who have been potentially exposed to a contagious disease, or to efforts to segregate these persons within specified geographic areas. 'Isolation' means the separation and confinement of individuals known or suspected (via signs, symptoms, or laboratory criteria) to be infected with a contagious disease to prevent them from transmitting disease to others.

    (O)    'Protected health information' means any information, whether oral, written, electronic, visual, pictorial, physical, or any other form, that relates to an individual's past, present, or future physical or mental health status, condition, treatment, service, products purchased, or provision of care, and that reveals the identity of the individual whose health care is the subject of the information, or where there is a reasonable basis to believe such information could be utilized (either alone or with other information that is, or reasonably should be known to be, available to predictable recipients of such information) to reveal the identity of that individual.

    (P)    'Public health emergency' means the occurrence or imminent risk of a qualifying health condition.

    (Q)    'Public safety authority' means the Department of Public Safety, the State Law Enforcement Division, or designated persons authorized to act on behalf of the Department of Public Safety, the State Law Enforcement Division, including, but not limited to, local governmental agencies that act principally to protect or preserve the public safety, or full time commissioned law enforcement persons.

    (R)    'Qualifying health condition' means an illness or health condition that may be caused by terrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or a novel infectious agent or biological or chemical agent and that poses a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities, widespread illness, or serious economic impact to the agricultural sector, including food supply.

    (S)    'Radioactive material' means a radioactive substance that has the capacity to cause bodily injury or death to a human, an animal, a plant, or another living organism.

    (T)    'Radiological terrorism' means the intentional use or threatened use of a radioactive material to harm or endanger members of the public.

    (U)    'Specimens' include, but are not limited to, blood, sputum, urine, stool, other bodily fluids, wastes, tissues, and cultures necessary to perform required tests, and environmental samples or other samples needed to diagnose potential chemical, biological, or radiological contamination.

    (V)    'Tests' include, but are not limited to, any diagnostic or investigative analyses necessary to prevent the spread of disease or protect the public's health, safety, and welfare.

    (W)    'Trial court' is the circuit court for the county in which the isolation or quarantine is to occur or to the circuit court for county in which a public health emergency has been declared.

    Article 3

    Special Powers During State Of Public Health Emergency:

Control of Property

    Section 44-4-300.    After the declaration of a state of public health emergency, DHEC may exercise, in coordination with state agencies, local governments, and other organizations responsible for implementation of the emergency support functions in the State Emergency Operations Plan for handling dangerous facilities and materials, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists, the following powers over dangerous facilities or materials:

    (1)    to close, direct and compel the evacuation of, or to decontaminate or cause to be decontaminated, any facility of which there is reasonable cause to believe that it may endanger the public health; and

    (2)    to decontaminate or cause to be decontaminated, any material of which there is reasonable cause to believe that it may endanger the public health.

    Section 44-4-310.    DHEC, in coordination with the guidelines of the State Emergency Operations Plan, may, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists and as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response, require a health care facility to provide services or the use of its facility if the services are reasonable and necessary to respond to the public health emergency as a condition of licensure, authorization, or the ability to continue doing business in the State as a health care facility. When DHEC needs the use or services of the facility to isolate or quarantine individuals during a public health emergency, the management and supervision of the health care facility must be coordinated with DHEC to ensure protection of existing patients and compliance with the terms of this act.

    Section 44-4-320.    (A)    DHEC must coordinate with coroners, medical examiners, and funeral directors, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists, to exercise, in addition to existing powers, the following powers regarding the safe disposal of human remains:

        (1)    to take possession or control of any human remains which cannot be safely handled otherwise;

        (2)    to order the disposal of human remains of a person who has died of an infectious disease through burial or cremation within twenty-four hours after death;

        (3)    to require any business or facility authorized to embalm, bury, cremate, inter, disinter, transport, and dispose of human remains under the laws of this State to accept any human remains or provide the use of its business or facility if these actions are reasonable and necessary for emergency response. When necessary during the period of time of the public health emergency, DHEC must coordinate with the business or facility on the management or supervision of the business or facility; and

        (4)    to procure, by order or otherwise, any business or facility authorized to embalm, bury, cremate, inter, disinter, transport, and dispose of human remains under the laws of this State as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response, with the right to take immediate possession thereof.

    (B)    Where possible, existing provisions set forth in the State Operations Plan for the safe disposal of human remains must be used in a public health emergency. Where the State Operations Plan is not sufficient to handle the safe disposal of human remains for a public health emergency, DHEC, in coordination with coroners, medical examiners and funeral directors, must adopt and enforce measures to provide for the safe disposal of human remains as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response. These measures may include, but are not limited to, the embalming, burial, cremation, interment, disinterment, transportation, and disposal of human remains.

    (C)    All human remains prior to disposal must be clearly labeled with all available information to identify the decedent and the circumstances of death. Any human remains of a deceased person with an infectious disease must have an external, clearly visible tag indicating that the human remains are infected and, if known, the infectious disease.

    (D)    Every person in charge of disposing of any human remains must maintain a written record of each set of human remains and all available information to identify the decedent and the circumstances of death and disposal. If the human remains cannot be identified, prior to disposal, a qualified person must, to the extent possible, take fingerprints and one or more photographs of the human remains, and collect a DNA specimen. All information gathered under this paragraph must be promptly forwarded to the DHEC. Identification must be handled by the agencies that have laboratories suitable for DNA identification.

    Section 44-4-330.    (A)    After the declaration of a public health emergency, DHEC may purchase and distribute antitoxins, serums, vaccines, immunizing agents, antibiotics, and other pharmaceutical agents or medical supplies that it considers advisable in the interest of preparing for or controlling a public health emergency, without any additional legislative authorization.

    (B)(1)    If a state of public health emergency results in a state-wide or regional shortage or threatened shortage of any product covered by subsection (a), whether or not such product has been purchased by DHEC, DHEC may control, restrict, and regulate by rationing and using quotas, prohibitions on shipments, price fixing, allocation or other means, the use, sale, dispensing, distribution, or transportation of the relevant product necessary to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the people of the State. In making rationing or other supply and distribution decisions, DHEC must give preference to health care providers, disaster response personnel, and mortuary staff.

        (2)    During a state of public health emergency, the DHEC may procure, store, or distribute any antitoxins, serums, vaccines, immunizing agents, antibiotics, and other pharmaceutical agents or medical supplies located within the State as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response, with the right to take immediate possession thereof.

        (3)    If a public health emergency simultaneously affects more than one state, nothing in this section shall be construed to allow DHEC to obtain antitoxins, serums, vaccines, immunizing agents, antibiotics, and other pharmaceutical agents or medical supplies for the primary purpose of hoarding such items or preventing their fair and equitable distribution among affected states.

    Section 44-4-340.    To the extent practicable and consistent with the protection of public health, prior to the destruction of any property under this article, DHEC in coordination with the applicable law enforcement agency must institute appropriate civil proceedings against the property to be destroyed in accordance with the existing laws and rules of the courts of this State or any such rules that may be developed by the courts for use during a state of public health emergency. Any property acquired by DHEC through such proceedings must, after entry of the decree, be disposed of by destruction as the court may direct.

    Article 5

    Special Powers During State Of Public Health Emergency:

Control of Persons

    Section 44-4-500.    During a state of public health emergency, DHEC must use every available means to prevent the transmission of infectious disease and to ensure that all cases of infectious disease are subject to proper control and treatment.

    Section 44-4-510.    (A)(1)    During a state of public health emergency, DHEC may perform voluntary physical examinations or tests as necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of individuals.

        (2)    DHEC may isolate or quarantine, pursuant to the sections of this act and its existing powers under Section 44-1-140, any person whose refusal of physical examination or testing results in uncertainty regarding whether he or she has been exposed to or is infected with a contagious or possibly contagious disease or otherwise poses a danger to public health.

    (B)(1)    Physical examinations or tests may be performed by any qualified person authorized to do so by DHEC.

        (2)    Physical examinations or tests must not be reasonably likely to result in serious harm to the affected individual.

    Section 44-4-520.    (A)    During a state of public health emergency, DHEC may exercise the following emergency powers, in addition to its existing powers, over persons as necessary to address the public health emergency:

        (1)    to vaccinate persons as protection against infectious disease and to prevent the spread of contagious or possibly contagious disease;

        (2)    to treat persons exposed to or infected with disease; and

        (3)    to prevent the spread of contagious or possibly contagious disease, DHEC may isolate or quarantine, pursuant to the applicable sections of this act, persons who are unable or unwilling for any reason (including, but not limiting to health, religion, or conscience) to undergo vaccination or treatment pursuant to this section.

    (B)    Vaccinations or treatment, or both, must be provided only to those individuals who agree to the vaccinations or treatment, or both.

    (C)(1)    Vaccination may be performed by any qualified person authorized by DHEC.

        (2)    To be administered pursuant to this section, a vaccine must not be such as is reasonably likely to lead to serious harm to the affected individual.

    (D)(1)    Treatment must be administered by any qualified person authorized to do so by DHEC.

        (2)    Treatment must not be such as is reasonably likely to lead to serious harm to the affected individual.

    Section 44-4-530.    (A)    During a public health emergency, DHEC may isolate or quarantine an individual or groups of individuals. This includes individuals or groups who have not been vaccinated, treated, tested, or examined pursuant to Sections 44-4-510 and 44-4-520. DHEC may also establish and maintain places of isolation and quarantine, and set rules and make orders.

    (B)    DHEC must adhere to the following conditions and principles when isolating or quarantining individuals or groups of individuals:

        (1)    isolation and quarantine must be by the least restrictive means necessary to prevent the spread of a contagious or possibly contagious disease to others and may include, but are not limited to, confinement to private homes or other private and public premises;

        (2)    individuals isolated because of objective evidence of infection or contagious disease must be confined separately from quarantined asymptomatic individuals;

        (3)    the health status of isolated and quarantined individuals must be monitored regularly to determine if they require isolation or quarantine;

        (4)    if a quarantined individual becomes infected or is reasonably believed to be infected with a contagious or possibly contagious disease, he or she must be promptly removed to isolation;

        (5)    isolated and quarantined individuals must be immediately released when they pose no substantial risk of transmitting a contagious or possibly contagious disease to others;

        (6)    the needs of persons isolated and quarantined must be addressed in a systematic and competent fashion, including, but not limited to, providing adequate food, clothing, shelter, means of communication with those in isolation or quarantine and outside these settings, medication, and competent medical care;

        (7)    premises used for isolation and quarantine must be maintained in a safe and hygienic manner and be designed to minimize the likelihood of further transmission of infection or other harms to persons isolated or quarantined; and

        (8)    to the extent possible, cultural and religious beliefs must be considered in addressing the needs of the individuals and establishing and maintaining isolation and quarantine premises.

    (C)    Persons subject to isolation or quarantine must comply with DHEC's rules and orders; and must not go beyond the isolation or quarantine premises. Failure to comply with these provisions constitutes a misdemeanor.

    (D)(1)    DHEC may authorize physicians, health care workers, or others access to individuals in isolation or quarantine as necessary to meet the needs of isolated or quarantined individuals.

        (2)    No person, other than a person authorized by DHEC, shall enter isolation or quarantine premises. Failure to comply with this provision constitutes a misdemeanor.

        (3)    Any person entering an isolation or quarantine premises with or without authorization of DHEC may be isolated or quarantined as provided for in this act.

    Section 44-4-540.    (A)    During a public health emergency, the isolation and quarantine of an individual or groups of individuals must be undertaken in accordance with the procedures provided in this section.

    (B)(1)    DHEC may temporarily isolate or quarantine an individual or groups of individuals through an emergency order signed by the commissioner or his designee, if delay in imposing the isolation or quarantine would significantly jeopardize DHEC's ability to prevent or limit the transmission of a contagious or possibly contagious disease to others.

        (2)    The emergency order must specify the following: (i) the identity of the individual or groups of individuals subject to isolation or quarantine; (ii) the premises subject to isolation or quarantine; (iii) the date and time at which isolation or quarantine commences; (iv) the suspected contagious disease, if known; and (v) a copy of Article VI of this Act and relevant definitions of this act.

        (3)    A copy of the emergency order must be given to the individual(s) or groups of individuals to be isolated or quarantined, or if impractical to be given to a group of individuals, it may be posted in a conspicuous place in the isolation or quarantine premises.

        (4)    Within ten days after issuing the emergency order, DHEC must file a petition pursuant to subsection (C) of this section for a court order authorizing the continued isolation or quarantine of the isolated or quarantined individual or groups of individuals.

    (C)(1)    DHEC may make a written petition to the trial court for an order authorizing the isolation or quarantine of an individual or groups of individuals.

        (2)    A petition under subsection (C)(1) must specify the following: (i) the identity of the individual or groups of individuals subject to isolation or quarantine; (ii) the premises subject to isolation or quarantine; (iii) the date and time at which isolation or quarantine commences; (iv) the suspected contagious disease, if known; and (v) a statement of compliance with the conditions and principles for isolation or quarantine of Section 44-4-630(B); and (vi) a statement of the basis upon which isolation or quarantine is justified in compliance with this article. The petition must be accompanied by a sworn affidavit of DHEC attesting to the facts asserted in the petition, together with any further information that may be relevant and material to the court's consideration.

        (3)    Notice to individuals or groups of individuals identified in the petition must be accomplished within twenty-four hours in accordance with the South Carolina Rules of Civil Procedure. If notice by mail or fax is not possible, notice must be made by personal service.

        (4)    A hearing must be held on any petition filed pursuant to this subsection within five days of filing of the petition. In extraordinary circumstances and for good cause shown, DHEC may apply to continue the hearing date on a petition filed pursuant to this section for up to ten days, which continuance the court may grant in its discretion giving due regard to the rights of the affected individuals, the protection of the public's health, the severity of the emergency, and the availability of necessary witnesses and evidence.

        (5)(a)    The court must grant the petition if, by a preponderance of the evidence, isolation or quarantine is shown to be reasonably necessary to prevent or limit the transmission of a contagious or possibly contagious disease.

            (b)    An order authorizing isolation or quarantine may do so for a period not to exceed thirty days.

            (c)    The order must (i) identify the isolated or quarantined individuals or groups of individuals by name or shared or similar characteristics or circumstances; (ii) specify factual findings warranting isolation or quarantine pursuant to this act; (iii) include any conditions necessary to ensure that isolation or quarantine is carried out within the stated purposes and restrictions of this act; and (iv) served on affected individuals or groups of individuals in accordance with the South Carolina Rules of Civil Procedure. If notice by mail or fax is not possible, notice must be made by personal service.

            (d)    Prior to the expiration of an order issued pursuant to this item, DHEC may move to continue the isolation or quarantine for additional periods not to exceed thirty days each. The court must consider the motion in accordance with standards set forth in this item.

    (D)(1)    An individual or group of individuals isolated or quarantined pursuant to this act may apply to the trial court for an order to show cause why the individual or group of individuals should not be released. The court must rule on the application to show cause within forty-eight hours of its filing. If the court grants the application, the court must schedule a hearing on the order to show cause within twenty-four hours from issuance of the order to show cause. The issuance of the order to show cause does not stay or enjoin the isolation or quarantine order.

        (2)(a)    An individual or group of individuals isolated or quarantined pursuant to this act may request a hearing in the trial court for remedies regarding breaches to the conditions of isolation or quarantine. A request for a hearing does not stay or enjoin the isolation or quarantine order.

            (b)    Upon receipt of a request under this subsection alleging extraordinary circumstances justifying the immediate granting of relief, the court must fix a date for hearing on the matters alleged not more than twenty-four hours from receipt of the request.

            (c)    Otherwise, upon receipt of a request under this subsection, the court must fix a date for hearing on the matters alleged within five days from receipt of the request.

        (3)    In any proceedings brought for relief under this subsection, in extraordinary circumstances and for good cause shown, DHEC may move the court to extend the time for a hearing, which extension the court in its discretion may grant giving due regard to the rights of the affected individuals, the protection of the public's health, the severity of the emergency, and the availability of the necessary witnesses and evidence.

    (E)    A record of the proceedings pursuant to this section must be made and retained. In the event that, given a state of public health emergency, parties cannot personally appear before the court, proceedings may be conducted by their authorized representatives and be held via any means that allows all parties to fully participate.

    (F)    The court must appoint counsel to represent individuals or groups of individuals who are or who are about to be isolated or quarantined pursuant to the provisions of this act and who are not otherwise represented by counsel. Payment for these appointments must be made in accordance with other appointments for legal representation in actions arising outside of matters in this act, and is not the responsibility of any one state agency. Appointments last throughout the duration of the isolation or quarantine of the individual or groups of individuals. DHEC must provide adequate means of communication between such individuals or groups of individuals and their counsel. Where necessary, additional counsel for DHEC from other state agencies or from private attorneys appointed to represent state agencies, must be appointed to provide adequate representation for the agency and to allow timely hearings of the petitions and motions specified in this section.

    (H)    In any proceedings brought pursuant to this section, to promote the fair and efficient operation of justice and having given due regard to the rights of the affected individuals, the protection of the public's health, the severity of the emergency, and the availability of necessary witnesses and evidence, the court may order the consolidation of individual claims into groups of claims where:

        (1)    the number of individuals involved or to be affected is so large as to render individual participation impractical;

        (2)    there are questions of law or fact common to the individual claims or rights to be determined;

        (3)    the group claims or rights to be determined are typical of the affected individuals' claims or rights; and

        (4)    the entire group will be adequately represented in the consolidation.

    Section 44-4-550.    (A)(1)    DHEC may, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists, collect or cause to be collected specimens and perform tests on any person or animal, living or deceased, and acquire any previously collected specimens or test results that are reasonable and necessary to respond to the public health emergency.

        (2)    Specimens shall be collected only from those individuals who agree to have specimens collected or who agree to have tests performed.

        (3)    All specimens must be clearly marked.

        (4)    Specimen collection, handling, storage, and transport to the testing site must be performed in a manner that will reasonably preclude specimen contamination or adulteration and provide for the safe collection, storage, handling, and transport of the specimen.

        (5)    Any person authorized to collect specimens or perform tests must use chain of custody procedures to ensure proper record keeping, handling, labeling, and identification of specimens to be tested. This requirement applies to all specimens, including specimens collected using on-site testing kits.

    (B)    Any business, facility, or agency authorized to collect specimens or perform tests must provide such support as is reasonable and necessary to aid in a relevant criminal investigation.

    Section 44-4-560.    (A)    Access to protected health information of persons who have participated in medical testing, treatment, vaccination, isolation, or quarantine programs or efforts by DHEC during a public health emergency is limited to those persons having a legitimate need to:

        (1)    provide treatment to the individual who is the subject of the health information;

        (2)    conduct epidemiological research; or

        (3)    investigate the causes of transmission.

    (B)    Protected health information held by DHEC must not be disclosed to others without individual specific informed authorization except for disclosures made:

        (1)    directly to the individual;

        (2)    to the individual's immediate family members or life partners;

        (3)    to appropriate state or federal agencies or authorities when necessary to protect public health;

        (4)    to health care personnel where needed to protect the health or life of the individual who is the subject of the information;

        (5)    pursuant to a court order or executive order of the Governor to avert a clear danger to an individual or the public health; or

        (6)    to coroners, medical examiners, or funeral directors or others dealing with human remains to identify a deceased individual or determine the manner or cause of death.

    Section 44-4-570.    (A)    The appropriate licensing authority, in coordination with DHEC and the Department of Labor, Licensing and Regulation, may exercise, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists, in addition to existing emergency powers, the following emergency powers regarding licensing of health personnel:

        (1)    to require in-state health care providers to assist in the performance of vaccination, treatment, examination, or testing of any individual as a condition of licensure, authorization, or the ability to continue to function as a health care provider in this State;

        (2)    to appoint and prescribe the duties of such out-of-state emergency health care providers as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response; and

        (3)    to authorize the medical examiner or coroner to appoint and prescribe the duties of such emergency assistant medical examiners or coroners as may be required for the proper performance of the duties of the office.

    (B)(1)    The appointment of out-of-state emergency health care providers pursuant to this section may be for a limited or unlimited time, but must not exceed the termination of the state of public health emergency. The appropriate licensing authority may terminate the out-of-state appointments at any time or for any reason provided that any termination will not jeopardize the health, safety, and welfare of the people of this State.

        (2)    The appropriate licensing authority may waive any or all licensing requirements, permits, or fees required by law and applicable orders, rules, or regulations for health care providers from other jurisdictions to practice in this State.

        (3)    Any out-of-state emergency health care provider appointed pursuant to this section shall not be held liable for any civil damages as a result of medical care or treatment related to the emergency response unless the damages result from providing, or failing to provide, medical care or treatment under circumstances demonstrating a reckless disregard for the consequences so as to affect the life or health of the patient.

    (C)(1)    The appointment of emergency assistant medical examiners or coroners pursuant to this section may be for a limited or unlimited time, but must not exceed the termination of the state of public health emergency. The medical examiner or coroner may terminate the emergency appointments at any time or for any reason, provided that any such termination will not impede the performance of the duties of the office.

        (2)    The medical examiner or coroner may waive any or all licensing requirements, permits, or fees required by law and applicable orders, rules, or regulations for the performance of these duties.

    (D)    Any person appointed pursuant to this section who in good faith performs the assigned duties is not liable for any civil damages for any personal injury as the result of any act or omission, except acts or omissions amounting to gross negligence or wilful or wanton misconduct."

SECTION    25.    Section 44-29-10 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 44-29-10.    (A)    In all cases of known or suspected contagious or infectious diseases occurring within this State the attending physician shall must report such these disease to the county health department within twenty-four hours, stating the name and address of the patient and the nature of the disease. The county health department shall must report to the Department of Health and Environmental Control all such cases of infectious and contagious diseases as have been reported during the preceding month, such these reports to be made upon blanks furnished by the Department of Health and Environmental Control. The Department of Health and Environmental Control shall must designate the diseases it considers contagious and infectious. The Department of Health and Environmental Control may also designate other diseases for mandatory reporting by physicians. Any physician who fails to comply with the provisions of this section shall be is guilty of a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, shall must be fined not more than one hundred dollars or be imprisoned for a period not exceeding thirty days.

    (B)    A health care provider, coroner, medical examiner, or any person or entity that maintains a database containing healthcare data must report all cases of persons who harbor any illness or health condition that may be caused by chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, radiological terrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or novel and highly fatal infectious agents and might pose a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities or incidents of permanent or long-term disability. The Department of Health and Environmental Control must designate reportable illnesses and health conditions as set forth in subsection (A).

    (C)    A pharmacist must report any unusual or increased prescription rates, unusual types of prescriptions, or unusual trends in pharmacy visits that may be caused by chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, radiological terrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or novel and highly fatal infectious agents and might pose a substantial risk of a significant number of human fatalities or incidents of permanent or long-term disability. Prescription-related events that require a report include, but are not limited to:

        (1)    an unusual increase in the number of prescriptions to treat fever, respiratory, or gastrointestinal complaints;

        (2)    an unusual increase in the number of prescriptions for antibiotics;

        (3)    an unusual increase in the number of requests for information on over-the-counter pharmaceuticals to treat fever, respiratory, or gastrointestinal complaints; and

        (4)    any prescription that treats a disease that is relatively uncommon and has bioterrorism potential.

    (D)    The reports of conditions must be made in the form and manner as prescribed by DHEC in regulations concerning infectious diseases. The reports must be made to the Bureau of Disease Control in the manner required in the regulations. When available, clinical information supporting the diagnoses, including results of specific diagnostic tests, must be included.

    (E)    For purposes of this section, the terms chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, and radiological terrorism have the same meanings as provided in Section 44-4-130."

SECTION    26.    Section 44-93-40 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 44-93-40.     (A)    To carry out the provisions and purposes of this chapter, the department may establish and collect registration and permit fees in connection with the provisions of this chapter; conduct inspections, investigations, obtain samples, and conduct research with respect to the operation and maintenance of a site or facility in which infectious waste is generated or managed; and issue, deny, revoke, suspend, or modify registration, permits, or orders under such conditions as it may prescribe for the operation of infectious waste treatment facilities or sites. No permit or registration may be revoked without first providing an opportunity for a hearing as provided pursuant to Article 3, Chapter 23 of Title 1, the Administrative Procedures Act.

    (B)    After the declaration of a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130, the department may exercise, for such period as the state of public health emergency exists, the following powers, in addition to any existing powers it has, for the safe disposal of infectious waste:

        (1)    to adopt and enforce measures to provide for the safe disposal of infectious waste as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response. These measures may include, but are not limited to, the collection, storage, handling, destruction, treatment, transportation, and disposal of infectious waste;

        (2)    to require any business or facility authorized to collect, store, handle, destroy, treat, transport, and dispose of infectious waste under the laws of this State, and any landfill business or other such property, to accept infectious waste or provide services or the use of the business, facility, or emergency. When necessary during the state of the public health emergency, the business or facility must coordinate with the department on the management or supervision of the business or facility; and

        (3)    to procure, by order or otherwise, any business or facility authorized to collect, store, handle, destroy, treat, transport, and dispose of infectious waste under the laws of this State and any landfill business or other such property as may be reasonable and necessary for emergency response, with the right to take immediate possession thereof."

SECTION    27.    Chapter 7, Title 46 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 46-7-100.     Every veterinarian, livestock owner, veterinary diagnostic laboratory director, or other person having the care of animals must report animals having or suspected of having any disease that may be caused by chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, radiological terrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or novel and highly fatal infectious agents and might pose a substantial risk of a significant number of human or animal fatalities or incidents of permanent or long-term disability. The report must be made by telephone, in writing, or by compatible electronic format within twenty-four hours to the State Veterinarian and must include as much of the following information as is available: the geographical location of the animal or the exposure, the name and address of any known owner, and the name and address of the reporting individual. The State Veterinarian must report to the Department of Health and Environmental Control any incidents which affect public health, or which create a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130. For purposes of this section, the terms chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, and radiological terrorism have the same meanings as provided in Section 44-4-130."

SECTION    28.    Chapter 9, Title 46 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 46-9-120.     Every farmer, agriculturalist, county extension agent, agricultural products processor, crop advisor, or other person working in agriculture, or person having responsibility for agricultural production or processing must report agricultural products having or suspected of having any disease or infection from any crop pest whatsoever that may be caused by chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, radiological terrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or novel and highly infectious agents and which might cause serious agricultural threat to the State. The report must be made by telephone, in writing, or by compatible electronic format within twenty-four hours to the Director, Regulatory and Public Service Programs, Clemson University, and must include as much of the following information as is available: the geographic location of the agricultural product and/or its origin; the name and address of any known owner, the name and address of any known shipper; the name and address of the owner of the point of origin; and the name and address of the reporting individual. The director must report to the Department of Health and Environmental Control any incidents which affect public health, or which create a public health emergency, as defined in Section 44-4-130. For purposes of this section, the terms chemical terrorism, bioterrorism, and radiological terrorism have the same meanings as provided in Section 44-4-130."

SECTION 29.    Section 30-4-40 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "(c)    Information identified in accordance with the provisions of Section 30-4-45 is exempt from disclosure except as provided therein and pursuant to regulations promulgated in accordance with this chapter. Sections 30-4-30, 30-4-50, and 30-4-100 notwithstanding, no custodian of information subject to the provisions of Section 30-4-45 shall release the information except as provided therein and pursuant to regulations promulgated in accordance with this chapter."

SECTION    30.    Chapter 4, Title 30 of the 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 30-4-45.    (A)    The director of each agency that is the custodian of information subject to the provisions of 42 U.S.C. 7412(r)(7)(H), 40 CFR 1400 'Distribution of Off-site Consequence Analysis Information,' or 10 CFR 73.21 'Requirements for the protection of safeguards information', must establish procedures to ensure that the information is released only in accordance with the applicable federal provisions.

    (B)    The director of each agency that is the custodian of information, the unrestricted release of which could increase the risk of acts of terrorism, may identify the information or compilations of information by notifying the Attorney General in writing, and shall promulgate regulations in accordance with the Administrative Procedures Act, Sections 1-23-110 through 1-23-120(a) and Section 1-23-130, to regulate access to the information in accordance with the provisions of this section.

    (C)    Regulations to govern access to information subject to subsections (A) and (B) must at a minimum provide for:

        (1)    disclosure of information to state, federal, and local authorities as required to carry out governmental functions; and

        (2)    disclosure of information to persons who live or work within a vulnerable zone.

    For purposes of this section, 'vulnerable zone' is defined as a circle, the center of which is within the boundaries of a facility possessing hazardous, toxic, flammable, radioactive, or infectious materials subject to this section, and the radius of which is that distance a hazardous, toxic, flammable, radioactive, or infectious cloud, overpressure, radiation, or radiant heat would travel before dissipating to the point it no longer threatens serious short-term harm to people or the environment.

    Disclosure of information pursuant to this subsection must be by means that will prevent its removal or mechanical reproduction. Disclosure of information pursuant to this subsection must be made only after the custodian has ascertained the person's identity by viewing photo identification issued by a federal, state, or local government agency to the person and after the person has signed a register kept for the purpose."

SECTION    31.    Section 40-18-30 of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended by adding at the end:

    "(D)     Fingerprint cards submitted to SLED pursuant to Sections 40-18-50, 40-18-60, 40-18-70, and 40-18-100 must be submitted by SLED to the Federal Bureau of Investigation to facilitate a national criminal records check of the applicant."

SECTION    32.    Section 40-18-50(B) of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "(B)     The applicant must post a ten thousand dollar bond with SLED in a form approved by the Attorney General in favor of the State. The bond must be issued by a surety insurer licensed to transact surety insurance in this State. The bond must be conditioned to pay a person who sustains loss as a result of a licensee's violation of or failure to comply with a provision of this chapter or SLED regulations. An aggrieved person may institute an action in the county of his residence against the licensee, his insurer, or both, to recover on the bond. The surety on the bond may cancel the bond upon giving thirty days' notice to SLED, and the surety is relieved of liability for a breach of condition after the effective date of the cancellation."

SECTION    33.    Section 40-18-70(B) of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "(B)     The applicant must post a ten thousand dollar bond with SLED in a form approved by the Attorney General in favor of the State. The bond must be issued by a surety insurer licensed to transact surety insurance in this State. The bond must be conditioned to pay a person who sustains loss as a result of a licensee's violation of or failure to comply with a provision of this chapter or SLED regulations. An aggrieved person may institute an action against the licensee in the county of the aggrieved person's residence or in the county where the licensee conducts business, his insurer, or both, to recover on the bond. The surety on the bond may cancel the bond upon giving thirty days' notice to SLED and is relieved of liability for a breach of condition after the effective date of cancellation."

SECTION    34.    Section 40-18-70(E)(9)(a) of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "(a)    as a private investigator with employed by a licensed private investigation agency;"

SECTION    35.    Section 40-18-70(L) of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "(L)     A person initially licensed as a private investigator before the effective date of this section, and who has maintained his license, is not required to meet the requirements contained in subsections (E)(1), (4), and (8)."

SECTION    36.    Section 40-18-100(A) of the 1976 Code, as added by Act 372 of 2000, is amended to read:

    "(A)    SLED may grant a Security Weapons Permit to carry a particular type of firearm to a person who is at least twenty-one years of age, is eligible to possess firearms, and is licensed or registered as a security officer. Application for the permit must be made on forms approved by SLED and the fee must be set by SLED regulation. An applicant must submit with the application one complete set of the applicant's fingerprints on forms specified or furnished by SLED. Fingerprint cards submitted to SLED pursuant to this section must be used to facilitate a national criminal records check, as required by Section 40-18-30. The permit is for one year and application for renewal must be on a form approved by SLED. The permit renewal must specifically reauthorize the type of firearm to be used by the permittee."

SECTION    37.     Section 42-1-130 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 42-1-130.    The term 'employee' means every person engaged in an employment under any appointment, contract of hire, or apprenticeship, expressed or implied, oral or written, including aliens and also including minors, whether lawfully or unlawfully employed, but excluding excludes a person whose employment is both casual and not in the course of the trade, business, profession, or occupation of his employer; and as relating to those employed by the State;, the term 'employee' includes all members of the South Carolina State and National Guard while performing duties in connection with the membership except duty performed pursuant to Title 10 and Title 32 of the United States Code,; all volunteer state constables appointed pursuant to Section 23-1-60, while performing duties in connection with their appointments and authorized by the State Law Enforcement Division; and all officers and employees of the State, except those elected by the people, or by the General Assembly, or appointed by the Governor, either with or without the confirmation of the Senate; and as relating to municipal corporations and political subdivisions of the State;, the term 'employee' includes all officers and employees of municipal corporations and political subdivisions, except those elected by the people or elected by the council or other governing body of any municipal corporation or political subdivision, who act in purely administrative capacities and are to serve for a definite term of office. Any reference to an employee who has been injured, or when the employee is dead, includes also his legal representative, dependents, and other persons to whom compensation may be payable.

    Any sole proprietor or partner of a business whose employees are eligible for benefits under this title may elect to be included as employees under the workers' compensation coverage of the business if they are actively engaged in the operation of the business and if the insurer is notified of their election to be included. Any sole proprietor or partner, upon such this election, is entitled to employee benefits and is subject to employee responsibilities prescribed in this title."

SECTION    38.    Section 42-7-65 of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "Section 42-7-65.    Notwithstanding the provisions of Section 42-1-40, for the purpose of this title and while serving in this capacity, the total average weekly wage of the following categories of employees is the following:

    (1)    For for all members of the State and National Guard, regardless of rank, seventy-five percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year, or the average weekly wage the service member would be entitled to, if any, if injured while performing his civilian employment, if the average weekly wage in his civilian employment is greater.;

    (2)    For for all voluntary firemen of organized voluntary rural fire units and voluntary municipal firemen, thirty-seven and one-half percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year.;

    (3)    For for all members of organized volunteer rescue squads, thirty-seven and one-half percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year.;

    (4)    For for all volunteer deputy sheriffs, thirty-seven and one-half percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year.; and

    (5)    for all volunteer state constables appointed pursuant to Section 23-1-60, while performing duties in connection with their appointments and authorized by the State Law Enforcement Division, thirty-seven and one-half percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year.

    The wages provided in items (2), (3), and (4), and (5) of this section may not be increased as a basis for any computation of benefits because of employment other than as a volunteer. Persons in the categories provided by items (2), (3), and (4), and (5) must be notified of the limitation on average weekly wages prescribed in this section by the authority responsible for obtaining coverage under this title.

    Volunteer firemen and rescue squad members are construed to mean members of organized units whose membership is certified to the municipal clerk or chairman of the council of the municipality or county in which their unit is based by the chief officer of the unit concerned. A volunteer deputy sheriff is a volunteer whose membership is certified by the sheriff to the governing body of the county. No volunteer deputy sheriff may be included under the provisions of this title unless approved by the governing body of the county or municipality. A voluntary constable appointed pursuant to Section 23-1-60 shall be included under the provisions of this title only while performing duties in connection with his appointment and as authorized by the State Law Enforcement Division and only if approved by the governing body of the entity using his services as a voluntary state constable. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, voluntary firemen of organized volunteer fire units and members of organized volunteer rescue squads are covered under this title by the county governing body unless the governing body of the county opts out of the coverage.

    The average weekly wage for inmates of the State Department of Corrections as defined in Section 42-1-480 is forty dollars a week. The average weekly wage for county prisoners is forty dollars a week. The average weekly wage for students of high schools, state technical schools, and state-supported colleges and universities while engaged in work study, marketing education, or apprentice programs on the premises of private companies or while engaged in the Tech Prep or other structured school-to-work programs on the premises of a sponsoring employer is fifty percent of the average weekly wage in the State for the preceding fiscal year."

SECTION 39. Section 16-8-10(4) and (14) of the 1976 Code is amended to read:

    "(4)    'Destructive device' means:

        (a)    a bomb, incendiary device, or anything any thing that can detonate, explode, be released, or burn by mechanical, chemical, or nuclear means, or that contains an explosive, incendiary, poisonous gas, or toxic substance (chemical, biological, or nuclear materials) including, but not limited to, an incendiary or over-pressure device, or any other device capable of causing damage, injury, or death;

        (b)    a weapon of mass destruction;

        (c)(b)    a bacteriological weapon or biological weapon; or

        (d)(c)    a combination of any parts, components, chemical compounds, or other substances, either designed or intended for use in converting any device into a destructive device which has been or can be assembled to cause damage, injury, or death."

    (14) "Weapon of mass destruction" means any device designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level that could result in internal or external bodily injury or death to a person.:

        (a)    any destructive device as defined in item (4);

        (b)    any weapon that is designed or intended to cause death or serious bodily injury through the release, dissemination, or impact of toxic or poisonous chemicals, or their precursors;

        (c)    any weapon involving a disease organism; or

        (d)    any weapon that is designed to release radiation or radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life."

SECTION    40. Section 56-5-5015(H) of the 1976 Code, as last amended by Act 462 of 1992, is further amended to read:

    "(H)    The provisions of this section do not apply to:

        (1)    a motor vehicle registered in this State in the name of a person, or the person's legal guardian, who has an affidavit signed by a physician or an optometrist licensed to practice in this State that states that the person has a physical condition that makes it necessary to equip the motor vehicle with sunscreening material which would be of a light transmittance or luminous reflectance in violation of this section. The affidavit must be in the vehicle at all times during its operation and must be produced at the request of a law enforcement officer. The affidavit must be updated every two years; or

        (2)    a law enforcement vehicle used regularly to transport a canine trained for law enforcement purposes."

SECTION    41.    The 1976 Code is amended by adding:

    "Section 23-1-230.    (A)    There is hereby created the First Responders Advisory Committee which shall consist of:

        (1)    the following eleven members, or their designees:

            (a)    the Chairman of the Governor's Security Council;

            (b)    the Director of the State Law Enforcement Division;

            (c)    the Director of the Department of Public Safety;

            (d)    the Adjutant General;

            (e)    the Director of the Emergency Management Division;

            (f)    the Director of the Emergency Medical Service Division of the Department of Health and Environmental Control;

            (g)    the State Fire Marshal;

            (h)    the President Pro Tempore of the Senate;

            (i)        the Speaker of the House of Representatives;

            (j)        the State Chief Information Officer; and

            (k)    the Chairman of the Commercial Mobile Radio Services Emergency Telephone Services Advisory Committee; and

        (2)    the following nine members who represent the following associations:

            (a)    the South Carolina Sheriffs' Association;

            (b)    the South Carolina Police Chiefs Association;

            (c)    the South Carolina Chapter of the National Emergency Number Association;

            (d)    the Association of Public Communications Officials;

            (e)    the South Carolina Emergency Medical Services Association;

            (f)    the Emergency Management Association;

            (g)    the South Carolina Fireman's Association;

            (h)    the South Carolina Fire Chiefs' Association; and

            (i)        the Palmetto 800 Advisory Committee.

    (B)    Expense reimbursement or per diem payment shall not be paid to members of the committee or its staff.

    (C)    All committee members shall serve until the end of the 2003 session of the South Carolina General Assembly.

    (D)    The Governor shall fill any vacancy on the Advisory Committee. An association to which a vacating member belonged may make recommendations to the Governor to fill the vacancy.

    (E)    A committee member who terminates his holding of the office or employment that qualified him for appointment shall cease immediately to be a member of the committee.

    (F)    The committee shall establish rules and procedures with respect to:

        (1)    the selection of its officers;

        (2)    the selection of meeting sites; and

        (3)    conducting its meetings.

    (G)    The authority and responsibilities of the committee are to research, study, analyze, determine, and report to the General Assembly by January 1, 2003, and thereafter to the President Pro Tempore of the Senate and the Speaker of the House concerning the needs of the first responders, including personnel involved with fire, law enforcement, emergency medical, emergency planning and coordinating, and 911 and other emergency communications. The issues to be studied with regard to first responders include, but are not limited to:

        (1)    performance of their duties, rendering of their services to the public in general, and to the individuals involved in an emergency, including the other first responders involved;

        (2)    preparing for the performance of those duties, including equipping, training, planning, and coordinating;

        (3)    funding their operations;

        (4)    preserving and enhancing their personal fitness, well-being, morale, and welfare;

        (5)    the appropriate role the State should play in continuing to assess and address the identified needs, including whether, and in what form, a new or existing state agency could and should be authorized and funded to assist in that role; and

        (6)    the consideration of legislation to address the identified needs and providing the General Assembly with draft legislation with regard to these issues.

    (H)    The First Responders Advisory Committee shall receive clerical and related assistance from the staff of the South Carolina Law Enforcement Division, the Department of Public Safety, and the Office of Information Resources."

SECTION    42.    Section 56-1-150 of the 1976 Code is repealed.

SECTION    43.    The repeal or amendment by this act of any law, whether temporary or permanent or civil or criminal, does not affect pending actions, rights, duties, or liabilities founded thereon, or alter, discharge, release, or extinguish any penalty, forfeiture, or liability incurred under the repealed or amended law, unless the repealed or amended provision so expressly provides. After the effective date of this act, all laws repealed or amended by this act must be taken and treated as remaining in full force and effect for the purpose of sustaining any pending or vested right, civil action, special proceeding, criminal prosecution, or appeal existing as of the effective date of this act, and for the enforcement of rights, duties, penalties, forfeitures, and liabilities as they stood under the repealed or amended laws.

SECTION    44.    If any section, subsection, paragraph, subparagraph, sentence, clause, phrase, or word of this act is for any reason held to be unconstitutional or invalid, such holding shall not affect the constitutionality or validity of the remaining portions of this act, the General Assembly hereby declaring that it would have passed this act, and each and every section, subsection, paragraph, subparagraph, sentence, clause, phrase, and word thereof, irrespective of the fact that any one or more other sections, subsections, paragraphs, subparagraphs, sentences, clauses, phrases, or words hereof may be declared to be unconstitutional, invalid, or otherwise ineffective.

SECTION    45.    This act takes effect upon approval by the Governor, and applies to offenses committed after its effective date and to causes of action arising or accruing on or after the effective date.

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